PaEasy Emergency Medicine Practice Exam

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• Which disease is characterized by hydrophobia and rapidly progressive encephalitis following exposure?
• What test confirms the diagnosis of biliary cirrhosis?
• Hypocalcemia treatment includes which combination?
• In Class 2 hypovolemic shock, the pulse is greater than which value?
• What is the therapeutic INR for warfarin for most patients?
• Which ABG pattern is associated with acute salicylate overdose?
• Which condition is a serious complication of sexually transmitted infections with increased risk of infertility and ectopic pregnancy, presenting with lower abdominal tenderness, chandelier's sign, and purulent cervical discharge?
• Factitious hyponatremia is most commonly associated with which of the following?
• Which statement is true about meningitis signs such as Kernig and Brudzinski?
• What is the definition of hypothermia?
• Which statement best reflects the treatment approach for High Altitude Pulmonary Edema?
• Which term describes a hernia in which bowel edema compromises its blood supply?
• The 'Spilled teacup sign' on a lateral X-ray of the wrist indicates which dislocation?
• What is the recommended BP-lowering target pattern in malignant hypertension?
• Which imaging modality is very accurate for differentiating ischemic from hemorrhagic stroke?
• Which antibiotic option is appropriate for outpatient management of a non-limb-threatening diabetic foot ulcer?
• Koilonychia (spoon nails), pallor, and cheilosis are characteristic of which condition?
• Which congenital condition is known to increase the risk for aortic dissection?
• Treatment for suspected adrenal crisis should include which of the following?
• In Class 3 hypovolemic shock, the pulse is greater than?
• An elderly patient with suspected upper GI bleeding; which diagnostic study is most appropriate to locate the bleeding source?
• Cardiac tamponade classically presents with which combination?
• Which of the following is not part of the five Hs?
• Which troponin subtype is typically measured in suspected MI?
• Which antibiotic is appropriate for suspected Vibrio infection from a marine wound?
• Volkmann's contracture is best described as which condition?
• Which organism is shiga toxin–producing and associated with bloody diarrhea?
• Which finding on a saline wet prep is diagnostic for Trichomoniasis?
• In septic shock, which is a key initial therapy?
• Which fracture is an ulna shaft fracture with proximal radius dislocation?
• In a HIV-positive patient with diffuse ST elevations and chest pain, which exam finding is most likely?
• Which test is diagnostic of Achilles tendon rupture?
• A 36-year-old man with a pattern of disregard for others, impulsivity, and repeated legal problems is most consistent with which personality disorder?
• Which statement best differentiates von Willebrand disease Type 1, Type 2, and Type 3?
• Red dots on the waist, shoulders, and axillae progress to papules and wheals with intense itching and small white spheres attached to hair. This describes which infestation?
• For suspected infective endocarditis, what is a recommended initial diagnostic step?
• Which of the following is included in the PERC rule to rule out the need for further imaging in suspected PE?
• In hypokalemia management, which is appropriate for a stable patient?
• Which electrolyte pattern is typical in adrenal crisis?
• In HIV patients, which virus is the most common cause of serious opportunistic viral disease?
• Which antibiotic classes are used to treat both anthrax and Yersinia pestis plague?
• In hypertensive emergency, what is the target reduction in blood pressure within the first hour?
• Class I hypovolemic shock is characterized by which of the following?
• Which burn depth is characterized by pink blisters and involves the epidermis and upper dermis?
• What is the most reliable clinical tool for confirming endotracheal intubation in an emergency?
• Which pathogen is commonly acquired from eating undercooked poultry or contaminated natural water sources?
• Which antibiotic is listed as a treatment for plague (Yersinia pestis)?
• In dermatitis management, the primary treatment focus is to
• What is the recommended acute treatment for a narrow complex supraventricular tachycardia?
• Greenstick fractures occur almost exclusively in which population?
• In an unconscious patient with suspected overdose, in what order should you administer thiamine, glucose, and naloxone?
• Which EKG finding is most characteristic of hypothermia?
• What measure may be helpful before using adenosine for paroxysmal SVT?
• Which facial location is most likely for a basal cell carcinoma described as pink pearly papule with surface telangiectasia and slow growth?
• Erythema on the thighs and buttocks with an annular scaly edge is characteristic of which condition?
• Very high triglycerides are associated with an increased risk of pancreatitis. Which lipid category is most closely linked?
• Which is part of managing respiratory acidosis?
• A patient presents with decreased leg pulses, pale skin, and cool, shiny skin. What is the most likely diagnosis?
• Which nerve is most commonly injured in mid- or distal humeral shaft fractures?
• What is the most common cause of death after a lightning strike?
• Which statement expands the SLUDGE mnemonic used for organophosphate poisoning symptoms?
• What nerve injury is associated with a humeral shaft fracture?
• To confirm tinea infections such as tinea barbae, which diagnostic test is commonly used?
• What symptoms characterize a pulmonary embolism?
• Infant with sunken fontanelles, decreased capillary refill, no tears, and few wet diapers most likely has dehydration; which IV fluid is indicated?
• A 55-year-old woman with mitral stenosis presents with dyspnea and palpitations; which tachyarrhythmia is most likely on EKG?
• A skier sustains a fall and pain at the base of the thumb; which ligament at the 1st MCP is most likely injured?
• Which fracture is an oblique fracture through the base of the radial styloid in the forearm?
• What is the initial management step for a confirmed lunate dislocation?
• Delayed onset of mushroom poisoning symptoms (>6 hours) is associated with which prognosis?
• Which of the following is a likely cause of a high anion gap metabolic acidosis in a non-diabetic patient?
• Which hematoma after a skull fracture presents with spinal fluid rhinorrhea and an initial unconsciousness followed by a lucid interval and later deterioration?
• Which is the most appropriate initial management for heat cramps?
• Blepharitis is inflammation of which anatomic structure?
• C6 radiculopathy typically presents with weakness in which muscle groups?
• Which heart disease presents with an opening snap in early diastole and a soft diastolic rumble heard at the apex in the left lateral decubitus position?
• Botulism is commonly associated with ingestion of which exposure?
• In a triage scenario, an elderly woman who fainted with shortness of breath and a younger man who fainted without prodrome, what is the likely cause of each episode?
• In S1 radiculopathy, which reflex is decreased?
• In the assessment of Circulation during the Primary Survey, which finding best fits the description provided in the material?
• Infective endocarditis, which finding confirms the diagnosis as a minor criterion per Duke criteria?
• Vasopressin and octreotide are used in the management of severe cases of which condition?
• A 55-year-old woman with atrial flutter and rheumatic mitral stenosis presents with dyspnea. Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy to prevent embolic stroke?
• Which finding is most consistent with a brown recluse spider bite?
• For vascular access in moderate to major burns, what is the recommended approach?
• What is the hallmark metabolic finding in isopropyl alcohol ingestion?
• Mononucleosis-like illness with exudative pharyngitis and palatal petechiae is most commonly due to infection with which virus?
• Which EKG finding is most consistent with a pulmonary embolism?
• Acute otitis media is most commonly caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and Moraxella catarrhalis, with high-dose amoxicillin as the standard therapy. Which condition is this description most consistent with?
• What meds should a patient go home with after ACS?
• What are the values for mild, moderate, and severe levels of the Glasgow Coma Scale?
• ____ arrhythmia most frequently results from lower energy AC exposures whereas ____ is more common after exposure to higher energy DC.
• Tx for heparin-induced bleeding?
• Stanford type A dissection involves which part of the aorta and is typically treated surgically?
• Which findings are characteristic of bacterial vaginosis?
• Which combination of signs characterizes a tension pneumothorax?
• For von Willebrand disease Type 2 or Type 3, which product can be used?
• Midsystolic murmur that decreases with squatting and increases with Valsalva is most consistent with which condition?
• Which patients typically experience atypical chest pain with myocardial infarction?
• According to the Duke criteria, which finding is a major criterion for infective endocarditis?
• In documentation of a 19-year-old with rhyming, nonsensical speech during an interview, which term best describes this behavior?
• Which scoring system is used to predict mortality in pancreatitis, with a value greater than 6 indicating high mortality?
• Which animal is categorized as low risk for rabies in the source material?
• Exudates occur when which type of factors that regulate pleural fluid are altered?
• What are the 4 levels of eye opening in the Glasgow Coma Scale?
• In pediatric head injury evaluation, skull radiographs have a limited role due to high false positives rates and low prevalence. Which statement best describes this limitation?
• In patients with NSTEMI and elevated troponins, which initial therapy is recommended before coronary catheterization?
• Nongonococcal urethritis commonly presents with what symptom?
• For a patient with prior myocardial infarction, which medications are listed as the drug of choice?
• Which statement best reflects the initial management of an ACL injury in the emergency setting?
• What is a typical physical examination finding in acute pericarditis?
• Patellofemoral syndrome is most common in which population?
• Which vascular territory is most likely affected in a stroke presenting with contralateral leg weakness greater than arm weakness and incontinence?
• Acute back pain is defined as pain lasting less than how many weeks?
• What is the initial management for hypercalcemia?
• What chest radiograph finding is typical of emphysema?
• What is the hallmark symptom of acute mountain sickness?
• Which drug is used to treat early-stage African Trypanosomiasis (Sleeping Sickness)?
• What is the most common fracture-dislocation of the wrist joint?
• Which burn depth involves the epidermis and upper dermis?
• In a patient who has experienced intimate partner violence, which of the following actions is most appropriate to recommend?
• Which topical antifungal is listed for the treatment of tinea pedis, manuum, cruris, and corporis?
• Which radiographic finding helps differentiate large bowel obstruction from small bowel obstruction on plain abdominal radiographs?
• Pediatric fever algorithm: for babies less than 28 days old with fever ≥38°C, what is the recommended management?
• Guillain-Barre syndrome is most likely due to what type of mechanism?
• In a boxer fracture, which finding indicates referral for reduction in addition to angulation?
• A 66-year-old man with hypertension presents with sudden tearing chest and back pain, hypotension, and a diastolic murmur best heard at the base. What is the most likely diagnosis?
• In DKA, if serum potassium is less than 3.3 mEq/L, which action should be taken?
• Bronchial foreign body aspiration presents with which signs?
• Which diagnosis is associated with vesiculopapular eruption over clothed areas in a hot environment?
• Mastoiditis is a rare complication of otitis media. Typical treatment duration is:
• Which of the following is a contraindication to placing a nasogastric tube?
• A patient who is intoxicated has mydriasis. Which substance could he have been using?
• What is the most commonly indicated test for signs of foodborne illness (i.e., diarrhea)?
• Which hepatitis B serology marker indicates current infection?
• Beclomethasone (Qvar) is which type of medication?
• Aspiration yields yellow, transparent fluid with 200–2000 WBCs and less than 25% PMNs. This fluid is best classified as:
• Which spinal cord syndrome features ipsilateral motor paralysis and contralateral loss of pain and temperature?
• What are the 5 levels of verbal response in the Glasgow Coma Scale?
• How are unruptured ovarian cysts smaller than 5 cm typically managed?
• Which radiographic finding is most characteristic of a pericardial effusion?
• Which is a critical component of management for epiglottitis?
• Which sputum findings are associated with asthma?
• The rotator cuff consists of which four muscles?
• What is the most common ankle sprain?
• Which treatment is commonly prescribed for tinea capitis?
• Which Salter-Harris type is characterized by injury to the growth plate with no metaphyseal or epiphyseal fracture?
• Which of the following is a hallmark laboratory finding in diabetic ketoacidosis?
• Which group is most likely to suffer mushroom poisoning?
• Greasy yellow scales on the chest and face are most consistent with which condition?
• Which of the following is a hypercoagulable state associated with increased risk of DVT?
• What are the most common foreign bodies causing airway obstruction in children?
• Epidural hematoma on CT is typically described as which shape?
• Which is a common cause of neurogenic shock?
• A Colles fracture is best described as a distal radius fracture with which deformity?
• In hyponatremia management when the patient is hypovolemic, which fluid is typically used for resuscitation?
• Which statement best defines malignant hypertension?
• In central retinal artery occlusion, which medication may help to reduce intraocular pressure?
• In kidney disease–related bleeding disorders, which treatment is commonly used to shorten bleeding time by releasing stored von Willebrand factor and factor VIII?
• Dicloxacillin prophylaxis for patients at high risk of endocarditis is indicated for which procedure?
• Pruritic macule on the fingers that ulcerates and forms multiple bloody vesicles followed by a painless black eschar. Which disease is this?
• Pityriasis rosea is classically preceded by a herald patch and followed by patches in a Christmas tree pattern along skin lines. Which condition is this?
• A 15-year-old boy collapses during a basketball game. What is the most likely etiology of sudden death in this adolescent?
• Acute bacterial prostatitis is treated with which antibiotic class?
• Causative vector for West Nile Virus?
• Which muscle is not considered part of the rotator cuff?
• Which electrocardiographic finding is most characteristic of acute pericarditis?
• An elderly patient with a swollen knee and prior effusion has synovial fluid demonstrating calcium pyrophosphate crystals. What is the most likely diagnosis?
• ______ is enlargement or dysfunction of the right ventricle due to pulmonary hypertension.
• Lateral neck radiography showing prevertebral soft-tissue swelling with forward displacement of the esophagus and trachea is most consistent with which condition?
• An 18-month-old infant with congenital heart disease is diagnosed with acute bronchiolitis secondary to respiratory syncytial virus. Which therapy should be initiated?
• A patient develops more than a 50% drop in platelets within a week of starting heparin. What is the most likely diagnosis?
• Infant with tender skin, diffuse erythema, sand-paper skin followed by large bullae and sloughing; positive Nikolsky sign.
• Which specialty follow-up is appropriate after a suspected ACL injury?
• What is the most common clinical finding on vital signs in cardiogenic shock?
• A suspected aspirin overdose presents with which acid-base disturbance?
• Among the listed causes of syncope, which is most closely associated with death?
• Which heart valve is most commonly affected by infective endocarditis?
• Which hemorrhage is associated with thunderclap headache and stiff neck due to aneurysm rupture?
• Activated charcoal is not used for which type of toxins?
• Which treatment option is appropriate for heat rash?
• Which sign is commonly observed in shock?
• If hypertonic saline is given too rapidly for acute hyponatremia, which complication may occur?
• In suspected heparin-induced bleeding, what is an appropriate initial management step?
• Which equation is used to estimate extracellular fluid deficit in dehydration?
• What proportion of trauma-related deaths are due to head trauma?
• In unstable hypokalemia, what is the recommended route for replacement?
• A 23-year-old man presents with fever, sore throat, fatigue, myalgias, and a morbilliform rash. Rapid strep and Monospot tests are negative. Which prevention strategy should be recommended for this patient?
• Which nerve is tested by saying 'ahh'?
• Which of the following is a common cause of anion gap metabolic acidosis?
• Which cardiac marker appears 3-6 hours after MI and remains elevated for 2-4 days and is specific to heart muscle?
• Acute _____ failure is defined by an increased creatinine x3 and a decrease in GFR by >75% or urine output <0.3 mL/kg/h for 24 hours or anuria for 12 hours.
• What is the initial management of heat stroke?
• Which of the following is NOT a criterion of the PERC rule for ruling out pulmonary embolism?
• Which statement correctly describes Type 1 pelvic fracture?
• Among empiric pneumonia treatment categories, which corresponds to aspiration pneumonia acquired in the hospital setting?
• Which of the following is NOT a listed cause of hypercalcemia?
• What age group is most at risk to develop osteoid osteoma?
• In Toxic Shock Syndrome management, which step helps remove potential sources?
• Restrictive cardiomyopathy is most often caused by which type of process?
• What syndrome features quadriparesis with more involvement of upper extremities and loss of pain and temperature sensation more in the upper extremities?
• Pain and tenderness over the patella with a joint effusion is most consistent with which diagnosis?
• Which muscle is most commonly involved in a rotator cuff tear?
• What is the most common symptom of thrombocytopenia?
• What potassium level defines hypokalemia?
• A patient presents with immediate pain and paresthesias after a sting, a positive tap test, tachycardia, nausea/vomiting, roving eye movements, muscle spasms, vision impairment, and dysphagia. Dx and treatment?
• Which nerve and artery are commonly affected in humerus fractures?
• Rhinorrhea in pharyngitis suggests which etiologic category?
• In carbon monoxide poisoning, initial management includes?
• Which finding would most strongly indicate necrotizing fasciitis rather than cellulitis?
• Which is the most serious systemic complication associated with Kawasaki disease?
• In blowout fracture radiographs, which sign reflects bone fragments in the sinus?
• Placental abruption is typically associated with which features?
• For a child under 1 year with airway obstruction due to a foreign body, which maneuver is recommended first?
• Which type of volvulus is most commonly treated with rectal tube insertion?
• What are the hyperkalemia electrocardiographic changes?
• Which drug is used to treat Schistosomiasis?
• Which symptoms are commonly associated with digoxin toxicity in heart failure patients?
• In a patient with tearing chest and back pain and a diastolic murmur, what is the expected finding on chest radiograph?
• Which murmur is pansystolic, blowing, high-pitched, and radiates to the left axilla?
• Time to heal for a superficial second-degree burn is typically:
• In gout, which joint is most commonly involved in the initial attack?
• What is the classic triad of symptoms for pulmonary embolism?
• Which medication increases aqueous humor outflow in acute angle-closure glaucoma?
• Which is the most common type of anthrax?
• Which laboratory finding is commonly elevated in acute pulmonary embolism and used in initial assessment?
• Which class of medications is generally contraindicated in congestive heart failure?
• Which laboratory finding would indicate anemia?
• Central Cord Syndrome true statement?
• In hyponatremia management, which statement is true?
• According to the American Heart Association, the tPA window can be expanded up to how many hours?
• A 17-year-old male with tachycardia, hypertension, diaphoresis, and mydriasis after a drug exposure; most likely diagnosis?
• Which ECG finding is characteristic of hyperkalemia?
• What is the testing modality of choice for HSV meningoencephalitis?
• Chvostek sign is described as which of the following?
• Patchy areas of alopecia with broken off hairs and scales at the periphery.
• Which nerve controls tongue movement?
• Which fracture type is caused by repetitive stress and may not be seen on initial radiographs?
• The four types of urinary incontinence are total, stress, urge, and overflow. What term completes the sentence?
• A joint aspirate shows yellow, cloudy fluid with more than 50,000 WBCs and more than 50% PMNs. The diagnosis is:
• Which laboratory finding is characteristic of nephrotic syndrome?
• What is the most likely type of shoulder dislocation in a patient who has a traumatic event and cannot move the shoulder?
• What is the Nikolsky sign?
• What is the treatment for tension pneumothorax?
• In boxer fracture management, which treatment is appropriate for angulation less than 40 degrees without extensor lag?
• Which statement best describes the management of Eastern Coral Snake bites?
• Hypertonic saline is indicated for severe hyponatremia when serum sodium falls below what threshold?
• In Herpes Zoster, acyclovir should be given if immunocompromised or within 72 hours of onset.
• Broca's area is primarily associated with which function?
• An early systolic opening click followed by a systolic ejection murmur radiating to the base is characteristic of which lesion?
• Which surgical option is used for treating arterial insufficiency?
• Current anticoagulation with INR 2-3 is considered what in the decision to use thrombolysis?
• A 35-year-old woman presents with multiple ulcerative lesions on the labia; Tzanck preparation shows multinucleated giant cells. What is the most likely diagnosis?
• What is the most common injury leading to septic shock?
• Which therapy is the cornerstone of treatment for myxedema coma?
• Which therapy is central to the management of methanol or ethylene glycol poisoning?
• Recent travel with alternating constipation and diarrhea, colitis, abdominal pain, fever, weight loss. Which disease is likely?
• Boxer's fracture is a fracture of the neck of the fourth or fifth metacarpal, typically from striking with a clenched fist. Which fracture name matches this description?
• What is the recommended reduction maneuver for a patellar dislocation?
• Cryptosporidiosis treatment includes which option for certain patients?
• In frostbite management, which blister type is considered less favorable?
• What does chest X-ray show in a tension pneumothorax?
• In chronic renal failure, which antihypertensive is listed as part of the recommended therapy?
• Which scenario best describes hypotonic hypovolemic hyponatremia?
• In acute pericarditis, which of the following is a serious complication that requires careful monitoring to prevent progression to tamponade?
• For gonorrhea and chlamydia coinfection, which regimen is recommended?
• Which electrolyte imbalance is seen with torsades de pointes?
• Which biomarker remains elevated the longest after myocardial infarction?
• A 14-year-old boy presents with acute scrotal pain after gym class. Which diagnosis is most likely?
• A 17-year-old female distance runner has diffuse anterior knee pain that worsens when walking up or down stairs or squatting. There is no history of acute trauma and no knee effusion. What is the most likely diagnosis?
• Infective endocarditis is most commonly caused by which organisms?
• What is the most common first symptom of restrictive cardiomyopathy?
• Which nerve root primarily innervates the anterior tibialis muscle?
• A 64-year-old patient with recurrent syncope and a completely unremarkable cardiac workup. Which diagnosis should be considered as a likely cause?
• Which factor is most useful in diagnosing dysbarism?
• What EKG finding is classically associated with pulmonary embolism?
• Subdural hematoma on CT is typically crescent-shaped. Which option reflects this?
• Which sign may accompany pulmonary embolism?
• A joint aspirate shows yellow and cloudy fluid with 200–50,000 WBCs and more than 50% PMNs. This fluid is classified as:
• Which factors aggravate symptoms in acute pericarditis?
• In suspected arterial occlusion of a peripheral limb, what is the initial management step?
• What percentage of volume loss causes hypovolemic shock?
• tPA should be considered in ischemic stroke within how many hours of symptom onset?
• Aspiration of a joint yields clear, transparent fluid with fewer than 200 WBCs and less than 25% PMNs. What is the most likely diagnosis?
• Which nerve injury is a known complication of tibial fractures?
• What is the first consideration in the management of an adolescent with an eating disorder and weight concerns?
• A Burst fracture involves compression of which vertebral columns?
• For otitis externa, which topical regimen is commonly used?
• How is the anion gap calculated?
• ____ is an uncommon cause of acute renal failure due to immune complex deposits in the kidney. Dysmorphic RBC and RBC casts are common.
• What is the progression from injury to death?
• Which of the following is NOT a symptom of late hypothermia?
• A Rh-negative woman at 14 weeks gestation presents with vaginal bleeding and clots. What Rhogam dose is indicated?
• A patient with chronic alcoholism presents with nystagmus, ophthalmoplegia, confusion, and ataxia. This presentation is most consistent with deficiency of which vitamin?
• A twisting knee injury with knee deformity after sports is most consistent with which diagnosis?
• The nonpitting, dry, waxy swelling of the skin seen in myxedema is referred to as what?
• How long does tissue necrosis take after a high‑pressure pinpoint entry of a foreign body?
• Which of the following is NOT a typical myocardial infarction presentation feature?
• The door-to-needle time for thrombolysis in STEMI is how many minutes?
• A patient with sudden tearing chest pain radiating to the back and unequal arm blood pressures is most concerning for which condition?
• Which of the following is a primary malignant tumor of the bone?
• Which finding is NOT typical of Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic State?
• Listeria monocytogenes meningitis is most common in which group?
• What EKG finding is pathognomonic for hypothermia?
• In macular degeneration, which form cannot be prevented?
• A 3-year-old with abrupt onset focal wheezing localized to the right lower lobe; most likely diagnosis?
• Which electrolyte disturbance presents with polydipsia, irritability, tremulousness, ataxia, and lethargy?
• The dinner fork deformity is most characteristic of which fracture?
• A patient presents with hypotension, warm dry skin, and bradycardia after a spinal injury. What is the most likely diagnosis?
• Which bone is the most commonly fractured bone in the upper extremity?
• Placenta previa is typically described with which bleeding pattern and fetal status?
• What is the initial treatment for an acute episode of supraventricular tachycardia in a hemodynamically stable patient?
• Intrinsic acute kidney injury is most commonly associated with which condition?
• What is the hallmark sign of heat stroke?
• Which sign is defined by pain on dorsiflexion of the foot and is classically used in evaluating deep vein thrombosis?
• Hypocalcemia is associated with which ECG change?
• In adrenal crisis, which laboratory abnormalities are typically seen?
• What is the definitive treatment for pyloric stenosis?
• In a patient with myxedema coma, which action is essential in the initial management?
• In the sequence for correcting fluids and electrolytes, which component is addressed third?
• An older patient with unilateral temple tenderness and a tender temporal artery, with no focal neurological signs, is most likely diagnosed with which condition?
• Which illness is caused by a virus from the Coltivirus genus?
• Achalasia shows a classic deformity on barium swallow. What is this deformity commonly described as?
• A FOOSH injury with snuff box tenderness indicates which fracture?
• In electrical injuries, which age group typically experiences low voltage injuries from electrical outlets?
• Which group is at the highest risk for nonexertional heat stroke?
• For suspected ruptured ovarian cyst causing acute pain, what is the diagnostic imaging modality of choice?
• Which Le Fort fracture is a pyramidal fracture through the central maxilla and hard palate?
• How do you test motor and sensory function of the median nerve?
• What is the most common cause of pleural effusions?
• Which factor is NOT useful in diagnosing dysbarism?
• What is the door-to-needle time for fibrinolysis in acute myocardial infarction?
• Electrocardiography in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy typically shows which finding?
• A Hill-Sachs lesion is best described as which of the following?
• Patients with anaphylaxis should first have a patent airway. What medications are involved in treatment?
• Which disease is managed with supportive care only?
• What is the most severe tick-borne disease in the US?
• Which antibiotic is the first-line treatment for Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?
• In hyperkalemia, which is used to stabilize the cardiac membrane?
• Which antidote is used for acute benzodiazepine overdose?
• Which pathogen is most commonly associated with foodborne disease requiring hospitalization and death?
• A teenage girl presents with polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, and a high plasma glucose with metabolic acidosis. The most likely diagnosis is which of the following?
• Which regimen is an appropriate treatment for erysipelas?
• Late decelerations are described as which pattern on fetal monitoring?
• A slow onset of abdominal pain, fever, and nausea/vomiting after trauma is most consistent with injury to which hollow organ?
• Which ankle-brachial index (ABI) range corresponds to claudication?
• Which acronym lists risk factors used to assess suicide risk?
• Zig-zag lines of lesions with hemorrhagic puncta and intense itching are characteristic of which bite?
• In Class 4 hypovolemic shock, urine output is?
• The Drop Arm Test indicates which condition?
• Which of the following is a listed cause of hypercalcemia related to vitamin D activity?
• Which bone fracture is most commonly associated with acute compartment syndrome?
• What blood pressure threshold excludes the use of tPA in ischemic stroke?
• Which statement correctly describes Type 2 pelvic fracture?
• Osteosarcoma has a bimodal age distribution with peaks at which age ranges?
• In cardiac tamponade, which of the following is an emergent management step?
• For an adult with black stools (melena) and no systemic symptoms, what is the most appropriate initial diagnostic test?
• Which of the following is a risk factor for central retinal artery occlusion?
• According to Ottawa ankle rules, which of the following is a criterion prompting radiographs?
• A 24-year-old male has had two syncopal episodes in the last 3 years, both during exercise of the right arm. What is the likely cause?
• Acute leukemia presents with which constellation of symptoms?
• In Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever, where does the rash commonly begin?
• Which of the following is a treatment for improving blood pressure in hypotension?
• In acute pericarditis, the ECG changes are due to inflammation of which layer?
• In a patient with cirrhosis presenting with massive hematemesis, the most likely source is which condition?
• Which statement about GU injury management is true?
• Pyelonephritis presenting with fever and costovertebral angle tenderness is commonly treated with which regimen for 2 weeks?
• In a patient with a fracture of the orbital floor, which nerve is most likely affected, causing decreased sensation of the cheek?
• Which murmur description is most consistent with aortic stenosis?
• This clinical picture — acute fever, focal neurologic deficits, CSF abnormalities, and temporal lobe lesions on CT — is most consistent with which diagnosis?
• What delta pressure value indicates compartment syndrome?
• Eating food from a street vendor with dry cough, fever, weakness, and malnutrition. Which helminth infection is likely?
• An elderly patient with progressive dyspnea, edema, decreased preload and clear lungs with a loud S2 most likely has which condition?
• What is the classic arrhythmia associated with COPD?
• In Hymenoptera stings, which option best describes initial management to remove venom and prevent progression of symptoms?
• A 48-year-old man experiences loss of consciousness followed by muscle rigidity and rhythmic contractions, then returns to a normal state. Approximately 6 hours later, he suffers a second episode. Which medication is he most likely taking?
• What is the first step in managing spine injuries?
• Which condition is classically associated with simultaneous bleeding and thrombosis?
• Which antidote is used for tricyclic antidepressant overdose?
• Which sensory change is considered pathognomonic for ciguatera poisoning?
• On a lateral neck radiograph, which sign is classically associated with epiglottitis?
• Which cardiac marker is the test of choice and rises 2-6 hours after myocardial infarction and remains elevated for 5-10 days?
• First-line antibiotic for acute sinusitis is Augmentin 1000/62.5 for 7-10 days.
• What is the normal serum bicarbonate range?
• Acute bronchitis is usually caused by viruses; which bacterial pathogens are commonly implicated?
• Which feature distinguishes necrotizing fasciitis from cellulitis?
• Which fracture is the fracture of the proximal third of the fibula with rupture of the distal tibiofibular syndesmosis?
• A wedge fracture is best described as compression of which vertebral column portion?
• Which therapy lowers potassium by shifting it into cells?
• In a patient with suspected acute anemia presenting with instability, what is the initial management step?
• Which antidote reverses the effects of opioids?
• Which condition is a nonanion gap metabolic acidosis cause?
• Simple partial seizures are best described as seizures that involve which characteristic?
• A patient presents with red lesions and white plaques on the vulva with months of intense pruritus. The clinician is concerned for which condition?
• In a patient with a large pericardial effusion and tamponade physiology, which ECG finding is most characteristic?
• A 16-year-old with knee abrasion; last DTaP booster was at age 4. Which tetanus prophylaxis plan is MOST appropriate?
• Which of the following is a risk factor for pulmonary embolism?
• Jefferson fracture refers to fracture of which vertebra?
• Which pathogens are commonly associated with patchy radiographic infiltrates in pneumonia?
• Which of the following is a SIRS criterion related to temperature?
• Which medication is indicated if a mushroom-poisoning patient is hallucinating or agitated?
• Which dermatosis presents with erythematous plaques with silvery scales, well-marginated, often with nail pitting?
• In suspected necrotizing fasciitis, which antibiotic combination provides broad-spectrum coverage appropriate for initial empiric therapy?
• Among structural causes of syncope, which is most common in the elderly population?
• What finding is typically seen on a peripheral blood smear in a patient with sickle cell disease experiencing a pain crisis?
• Which statement best describes hepatitis B treatment duration if the response is favorable?
• What is the most common ECG abnormality in patients with a pulmonary embolism?
• Which organism causes syphilis?
• Impetigo is a contagious superficial skin infection most commonly caused by Staph aureus; which topical antibiotic is commonly used?
• What is the leading cause of blindness in HIV patients?
• In acute chest syndrome, which combination of therapies is commonly used in initial management?
• What is the most common injured organ in blunt abdominal trauma?
• Which electrolyte disturbance presents with depression, vertigo, nystagmus, ataxia, seizures, dysphagia, hypothermia and characteristic DTR changes?
• Which radiographic combination is considered standard for patellar fracture evaluation?
• In a greenstick fracture, which radiographic description best describes this fracture?
• In acute compartment syndrome of the leg, which compartment is most commonly involved?
• In evaluating acid-base disorders, what is the first step?
• What are the characteristics of 3rd degree frostbite?
• Which term best describes anemia caused by premature destruction of red blood cells?
• Which adjunct therapy is used in pediatric diabetic ketoacidosis to reduce the risk of cerebral edema?
• Which statement about electrocardiogram findings in calcium disorders is true?
• A patient with salmonellosis is treated with which antibiotic?
• Which diagnosis corresponds to mild swelling of the hands and feet after exposure to a hot environment?
• Which disease presents with an erythematous plaque at the tick bite site and painful regional lymphadenopathy (ulceroglandular form)?
• Subclavian Steal Syndrome typically presents with symptoms triggered by exercising which limb due to retrograde vertebral artery flow?
• Which therapy is controversial and not routinely recommended for spine injuries?
• Which condition is a known risk factor for multifocal atrial tachycardia (MAT)?
• A patient with progressive fatigue, abdominal pain, weight loss, vomiting, and hyperpigmented skin folds is most suggestive of which endocrine disorder?
• In a patient with atrial flutter and 2:1 AV block, which diagnostic study is most appropriate next to evaluate for valvular disease?
• Which medication is NOT a first-line therapy for hepatitis B?
• What is the normal arterial range for PaCO2?
• Which regimen is recommended for infective endocarditis in patients who are intravenous drug users?
• Among adults over 50 with back pain, which condition is described as a vascular emergency to consider?
• Vitamin K deficiency affects which of the following factors?
• A firm, painless vaginal ulcer is seen with which disease?
• In a blowout fracture, which sign indicates orbital fat herniation into the maxillary sinus on plain radiographs?
• In the Glasgow Coma Scale, which Verbal score corresponds to inappropriate words?
• What are the treatments for bradyarrhythmias?
• Which radiographic sign is described as the coffee bean sign on abdominal imaging?
• If CT scanning is not available for pediatric head injury, which imaging modality may be an acceptable alternative?
• Which test is used to detect Helicobacter pylori infection?
• Which statement correctly classifies hypothermia by core temperature?
• What is the most common cause of infectious arthritis in young adults?
• A patient with biopsy-confirmed temporal arteritis should be treated with which agent as first-line therapy?
• Which statement best describes pain in osteoid osteoma?
• Multifocal atrial tachycardia is most commonly associated with which condition?
• What type of patient is contraindicated for prostate exam by DRE?
• Which condition presents with asymmetric swelling of peritonsillar tissue and uvular deviation away from the affected side, with symptoms such as sore throat, drooling, 'hot potato' voice, and trismus?
• Which CSF profile is most consistent with bacterial meningitis?
• How is vaginal candidiasis diagnosed?
• Which nerve root is associated with plantar flexion weakness?
• Which of the following is not part of the five Hs?
• What is the treatment for symptomatic hypocalcemia?
• In carbon monoxide poisoning, what therapy may be used beyond high-flow oxygen?
• In counseling a rape survivor on next steps, which is most critical to improve prognosis?
• In a child with hemophilia, which joint is most commonly affected by hemarthrosis?
• What test is diagnostic for Bordetella pertussis infection?
• Which incomplete spinal injury has the worst prognosis?
• Partial flexion at the PIP joint with extension at the DIP joint is characteristic of which finger deformity?
• Which fracture is an intra-articular fracture with a displaced radial articular fragment?
• A patient on chronic corticosteroid therapy undergoing surgery is at risk of which acute crisis?
• Which of the following is a symptom included in the SLUDGE mnemonic for organophosphate poisoning?
• Stage 1 hypertension is defined as greater than which blood pressure?
• Which physical sign would confirm opioid intoxication?
• How long should Plavix/Clopidogrel be used for bare metal stents?
• Which organism is typically spread by the fecal-oral route?
• Desmopressin can shorten bleeding time in bleeding disorders due to which conditions?
• Which heat illness is characterized by a core temperature greater than 41°C and is a medical emergency?
• Which sign would indicate diaphragmatic injury after trauma?
• Which statement best describes the imaging appearance of a greenstick fracture?
• Which antibiotic combination is appropriate for necrotizing fasciitis?
• Intra-articular distal radius fracture with dorsal displacement of the distal fragment and carpus subluxation is which fracture?
• What is the Rule of the Nines proportion for the head in burn injuries?
• What constitutes the diagnostic criteria for Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome (SIRS)?
• An inflammation of the optic nerve presenting with acute vision loss and reduced color vision, with a swollen optic disc. The most likely diagnosis is:
• What echocardiographic finding is described in pericarditis?
• Which criterion indicates the use of sodium bicarbonate therapy in metabolic acidosis?
• Which stool finding is most specific for occult blood testing in diarrhea?
• Which organism causes erysipeloid with marginating plaques after handling fish?
• Which medication can be given to reduce blood pressure so that tPA can be administered?
• What ECG finding is characteristic of acute pericarditis?
• Which cervical vertebrae innervate the diaphragm?
• Which of the following is an intubation complication?
• Which therapy is included in the management of Cerebral Arterial Gas Embolism?
• Deficiency in factor IX is associated with which disorder?
• Pulmonary embolism: which of the following is part of initial management?
• Beck's triad includes which of the following components?
• Osteomyelitis in adult intravenous drug abusers most commonly affects which bones?
• Which diagnostic test is used for suspected tinea capitis?
• Which of the following is NOT part of the classic pentad of Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura?
• A 24-year-old HIV-positive man presents with severe left chest pain that improves when sitting forward. Exam reveals a pericardial friction rub. Chest x-ray shows a water bottle–shaped cardiac silhouette. Which diagnostic study is most appropriate next step in management?
• Osteomyelitis is most commonly caused by which organism?
• In a patient with insomnia and tachycardia, which diagnosis is most likely and which lab finding would confirm it?
• A proximal ulna fracture with dislocation of the radial head at the elbow is diagnosed as which injury?
• Infection of the lacrimal sac is called what?
• What is the primary management step in disseminated intravascular coagulation?
• Which mechanism is commonly associated with posterior cruciate ligament injuries?
• What is the most common cause of acute bronchitis?
• Which antiviral is used to treat herpes simplex encephalitis?
• Calcium pyrophosphate crystals in synovial fluid are associated with pseudogout. Which joint is most commonly affected by pseudogout?
• Among risk factors for stress fractures in athletes, which factor is associated with osteopenia and increased fracture risk, particularly in female athletes?
• Which nerve is primarily responsible for motor function to the iliopsoas and for L1-L3 dermatomes?
• What is the most common barotrauma among scuba divers during descent?
• In systolic dysfunction heart failure, which drug class is contraindicated?
• Which of the following best represents the standard treatment for moderate to major thermal burns?
• In hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, which medication class is commonly used to relieve symptoms?
• Which radiographic sign on a chest X-ray indicates a pleural effusion?
• Which statement describes the diagnostic criteria for ARDS?
• Which viral exanthem presents with Koplik's spots, cough, coryza, conjunctivitis, and a macular rash that begins at the head and progresses downward?
• Which fracture is a transverse fracture of the diaphyseal region at the base of the fifth metatarsal?
• What is the antidote for acetaminophen toxicity?
• What is the standard treatment for acute pericarditis?
• What is the treatment for retinal detachment to correct the tear?
• Conjunctival congestion suggests which etiologic agent in pharyngitis?
• Which components make up Virchow's Triad associated with deep vein thrombosis?
• In a patient without active bleeding, prophylactic platelet transfusion is typically indicated when the platelet count falls below:
• What is the typical pain description for Acute Coronary Syndrome?
• Which cancer is among the most common to metastasize to the vertebrae and cause back pain?
• Which intravenous agent reduces intraocular pressure by decreasing vitreous or aqueous volume in acute angle-closure glaucoma?
• Renal artery thrombosis is associated with a fracture at which vertebral level?
• A 19-year-old with psychosis uses made-up words and phrases. What type of verbal utterance is this?
• Which fracture is a fracture/dislocation of the thumb at the carpometacarpal joint?
• Which disease is associated with fever, rash, and a history of tick bite as classical features?
• In Guillain-Barré, what is the typical direction of weakness on the body?
• Which of the following is NOT a rotator cuff muscle?
• Which type of leg ulcer is typically punched-out with hair loss?
• Enlarged tonsils, exudates, and petechiae of the palate are classic for infection with which organism?
• In the management of preeclampsia, which combination lists seizure prophylaxis and first-line antihypertensive?
• In suspected pelvic fracture after high-energy trauma, which assessment step is essential?
• In IV drug users with endocarditis, which valve is most commonly affected?
• What is the most common vector-borne zoonotic infection in the United States?
• What condition is defined by the presence of endometrial tissue outside the endometrial cavity, with symptoms such as dyspareunia, infertility, abnormal bleeding, and chronic pelvic pain?
• Which antivirals shorten the course of influenza A or B?
• Which statement best describes initial management of metabolic acidosis?
• Which finding is most characteristic of Prinzmetal (variant) angina?
• A key differential for Guillain-Barre syndrome should always be considered due to similar ascending paralysis. Which toxin is this referring to?
• In the Duke criteria for infective endocarditis, which finding satisfies a major criterion?
• Which topical treatment is appropriate for mild thermal burns?
• Which Hymenoptera reaction is characterized by a delayed reaction days after stinging?
• In suspected anaphylaxis, what is the first priority in management?
• Which fracture is a radial fracture with distal ulna dislocation?
• What is an appropriate initial empiric antibiotic regimen for orbital cellulitis?
• Which of the following is listed as a diarrhea treatment in the material?
• Hangman's fracture refers to a fracture of which cervical vertebra?
• Which syndrome injures the anterior aspect of the spinal cord causing paralysis and loss of pain and temperature with preserved position sense?
• In an elderly man with syncope and a systolic murmur consistent with aortic stenosis, which test is most appropriate next?
• In addition to insulin and normal saline, which electrolyte is commonly infused in a type 2 diabetic arriving in a hyperglycemic, hyperosmolar, nonketotic state to prevent hypokalemia?
• Which shoulder dislocation reduction technique is commonly associated with gentle traction and abduction?
• Under the Ottawa ankle rules, which finding warrants ankle radiographs?
• Which anatomical structures most often explain periumbilical abdominal pain?
• What EKG finding is commonly seen in dilated cardiomyopathy?
• Which drug is used to treat Amebiasis (Entamoeba histolytica)?
• Which of the following is an intrinsic cause of hemolysis?
• The most common enzymopathy of red blood cells is which deficiency?
• Hyponatremia is defined as a serum sodium concentration below which value?
• What is the sublingual nitroglycerin dose used in MONA?
• In dysfunctional uterine bleeding, what is the gold standard method to determine whether ovulation has occurred?
• Common complications of a Galeazzi fracture include which of the following?
• Which electrocardiographic finding is associated with digoxin toxicity?
• Which splint is commonly used to immobilize a scaphoid fracture?
• Which of the following is NOT a symptom of early hypothermia?
• What is the typical imaging sequence used in diagnosing pulmonary embolism, in order from initial to final confirmation?
• Which heart sounds are typically heard with myocardial infarction?
• A purulent skin lesion after a spider bite is most likely caused by which organism?
• An indirect inguinal hernia is explained by which description?
• In a boxer fracture, what angulation threshold requires referral for reduction?
• What is the emergent treatment for arterial embolism or thrombosis presenting with pain, pallor, pulselessness, paresthesias, and paralysis?
• Which therapy is considered disease-modifying for biliary cirrhosis?
• In concussion grading by the American Academy of Neurology, which grade corresponds to confusion with no loss of consciousness for less than 15 minutes?
• Sickle cell patient with chest pain, dyspnea, cough, and fever. Most likely diagnosis?
• Which symptom cluster is commonly associated with acute coronary syndrome?
• What blood glucose level is typical for diabetic ketoacidosis?
• Which antidote is used for tricyclic antidepressant overdose?
• What is the initial management for a tibial fracture?
• In a young patient presenting with stroke symptoms and possible recent neck trauma, which condition should be considered?
• What is the standard treatment for syphilis?
• Which sign is classically associated with cardiac tamponade?
• Which cancer is NOT typically a vertebral metastasis?
• Which labs/imaging are ordered to diagnose pancreatitis?
• Which depth categories are used to describe burns?
• Which antibiotic class is commonly used to treat pertussis?
• What is the most common cause of anaphylactic shock?
• What is the most common viral cause of encephalitis in the United States?
• Trousseau sign is best described as what?
• For a diabetic foot ulcer less than 2 cm, superficial, with no fever or ischemic changes, which management is appropriate?
• Which two cervical vertebrae account for the greatest amount of axial rotation?
• Which physical exam findings are most indicative of myocardial infarction?
• What is the mainstay of therapy for von Willebrand disease?
• What is a treatment option for severe hypermagnesemia?
• What imaging modality is used to diagnose splenic rupture in the material?
• Which IV fluid is used for dehydration according to the protocol described?
• Vaginitis with intense vaginal pruritus, malodorous yellow-green discharge, and urethritis is most consistent with which infection?
• What is the most common cause of acute adrenal insufficiency?
• Cystic acne with ulcerating lesions, fever, myalgia, and hepatosplenomegaly.
• What are the two forms of diabetes insipidus?
• Which medication class is commonly used to reduce fluid overload in congestive heart failure?
• In epididymitis among men over 40, the usual pathogens are from which category?
• Pharyngitis with pharyngeal exudates suggests which etiologic category?
• During a shoulder dislocation, which nerve is most at risk of injury?
• Which antibiotic is commonly used to treat chlamydia?
• What are the characteristics of 1st degree frostbite (frostnip)?
• A 14-year-old boy with acute scrotal pain; which diagnostic test is most helpful to confirm testicular torsion?
• Fracture of the proximal ulna with anterior dislocation of the radial head is known as which fracture?
• For Streptococcal Toxic Shock Syndrome, which management step is recommended?
• Which treatment option is used for genital warts?
• What imaging modality is described as the imaging gold standard for stroke evaluation?
• New onset type 2 diabetes often presents with which condition?
• A 65-year-old recent alcoholic with dyspnea on exertion and orthopnea due to beriberi should be treated with which?
• Which is the most common form of cardiomyopathy?
• Which option correctly pairs the type of hypotonic hyponatremia with an example?
• Labyrinthitis presents with rotational vertigo and nystagmus. What is the characteristic direction of nystagmus?
• In Toxic Shock Syndrome, what is the most important initial management step?
• Among HIV-associated neoplasms, which is most common?
• Left-sided heart failure contributes to pleural effusions by increasing hydrostatic pressure, producing which type of effusion?
• In Class 4 hypovolemic shock, the pulse is greater than?
• Which medication may help to reduce intraocular pressure in central retinal artery occlusion?
• Which medication, among the following, is used in heart failure to increase cardiac contractility?
• Exudates are characterized by which of the following?
• An avulsion fracture at the base of the fifth metatarsal is commonly called which fracture?
• Which of the following is a nonanion gap metabolic acidosis cause?
• An older patient presents to the ER with recurrent syncope and a completely unremarkable cardiac workup. Which diagnosis should be considered as a likely cause?
• Which is a fracture-dislocation of the tarsometatarsal joint?
• Posterior epistaxis is harder to manage because it originates from which plexus?
• A 59-year-old woman sustains second- and third-degree burns to the head and neck, anterior surfaces of both arms, one leg, and the trunk including the genital area. Using the Rule of Nines, which estimate best reflects the total burn area?
• In pulmonary embolism, the EKG pattern S1Q3T3 may appear with or without which conduction abnormality?
• Which combination of steps is recommended for mild thermal burns?
• Which cranial nerve is responsible for facial sensation?
• Which mechanism is NOT associated with a wedge fracture?
• Which pattern of fetal heart rate deceleration begins and ends with the contraction?
• Which symptom best describes High Altitude Cerebral Edema?
• In Class 2 hypovolemic shock, what percent of blood volume is lost?
• What is the most reliable test to diagnose carbon monoxide poisoning?
• What is the major cause of high altitude syndromes?
• A hernia that cannot be reduced is called which of the following?
• In pleural effusion evaluation, what does a lateral decubitus radiograph help demonstrate?
• Which of the following is NOT a component of Virchow's Triad?
• ST elevations in I, aVL, V4, V5, V6 indicate which MI and artery?
• Which statement best reflects the initial management for suspected spinal epidural abscess according to the material?
• Which of the following is NOT among the five T's?
• Bethesda inhibitor assay is used to measure what?
• In thyroid storm, which medication is used to inhibit thyroid hormone synthesis and peripheral conversion?
• Which analgesic should be avoided for pain in splenic rupture according to the material?
• Varicella treatment in immunocompromised patients or those older than 12 years should include which antiviral?
• Eating undercooked pork, seizures, headaches, mental status change, hydrocephalus.
• Stanford type B aortic dissection is primarily managed with what?
• An elderly woman with severe dehydration is treated in the ED. Which IV fluid is indicated initially?
• Which imaging modality is more sensitive for hyperacute and acute intracranial hemorrhage?
• Which of the following is a cause of decreased platelet production?
• Reiter syndrome associated with chlamydial infection includes urethritis, conjunctivitis, and which manifestation?
• Beck's triad in pericardial tamponade includes which three findings?
• Which seizure type preserves consciousness?
• What is the recommended timeframe for gastric decontamination by emesis or lavage after ingestion?
• What is an appropriate initial management step for vasovagal syncope?
• Which ECG finding is associated with hypokalemia?
• For central diabetes insipidus, what is the first-line pharmacologic treatment?
• Which mechanism is most commonly associated with ACL tears?
• A pregnant woman at 28 weeks with signs suggestive of rheumatic heart disease shows an opening snap and a diastolic rumble best heard at the apex in the left lateral decubitus position. Which lesion is most likely on echocardiogram?
• Bankart fracture refers to detachment of which structure?
• Time to heal for a deep second-degree burn is typically:
• Which syndrome presents with greater weakness in the upper extremities after a cervical hyperextension?
• Flumazenil is used to reverse acute benzodiazepine overdose in patients who do not have risk of seizure. True or False?
• Interdigital scaling, maceration, erythema of the soles or palms, and itching is most consistent with which diagnosis?
• A chest X-ray showing a water bottle-shaped heart is most characteristic of which condition?
• Alternating convergent strabismus is considered normal until what age in infants?
• Basal cell carcinoma is most commonly located on which facial feature?
• Which heat stroke type is associated with respiratory alkalosis?
• What is the first-line single-dose antibiotic for chancroid?
• In Class 2 hypovolemic shock, estimated blood loss is between which values?
• Which statement best describes Brown Recluse spider bite management?
• Which diastolic murmur heard along the left sternal border is most consistent with aortic regurgitation?
• An 88-year-old woman falls and presents with a shortened, abducted, externally rotated leg and knee pain. Which injury is most likely?
• Which statement correctly describes sprain grades?
• Botulism is caused by a neurotoxin produced by which organism?
• Which of the following is NOT a listed cause of hypovolemic shock?
• A patient presents with headache, nausea, and dizziness after exposure to gas or smoke, with anion gap metabolic acidosis. What is the most likely diagnosis?
• A scuba diver ascends and experiences truncal constriction (a feeling of tight around the chest) and ascending paralysis. What is the diagnosis and initial treatment?
• In a patient presenting with fatigue, jaundice, pruritus, yellow plaques, osteoarthritis, and portal hypertension, which diagnosis is most likely?
• Hangman's fracture involves fracture of which vertebra?
• A 17 year-old patient presents to the emergency department with agitation and hallucinations, and has one seizure. He admits to using "some drugs" but does not know what they were. Which diagnostic study will be of most help in managing this patient?
• Which combination constitutes the classic triad of Wernicke's encephalopathy?
• What will a Gram stain of a gonorrheal infection typically show?
• Which DSM-IV axis corresponds to general and acute medical conditions?
• Which agent is used to neutralize circulating tetanus toxin in generalized tetanus?
• Which statement about shock and its hemodynamic changes is true?
• Which radiographic finding is typical of bronchiolitis on chest imaging?
• In an elderly patient with postrenal azotemia, what is the most likely cause?
• What is the term for a gout attack at the first metatarsophalangeal joint?
• Giant multinucleated cells observed on cytology are most characteristic of infection with which virus?
• Which medication is used to treat pruritus in biliary cirrhosis?
• Which regimen is recommended for treatment of gonorrhea and chlamydia co-infection?
• Flu-like symptoms progressing quickly to mediastinal and hilar edema and respiratory failure describe which infection?
• What is the definition of hypercalcemia?
• Tender papule that evolves into a painful purulent ulcer with unilateral inguinal adenopathy is most consistent with which diagnosis?
• What is the 3:1 rule for fluid resuscitation in hemorrhage?
• Recent travel with fever, headache, conjunctival injection, facial flushing followed by jaundice, black emesis, and albuminuria.
• Obstruction in pediatric foreign body aspiration is most common in which airway?
• What is the definition of hyperkalemia?
• Which statement accurately describes the Rule of 9's for estimating burn size?
• Which of the following is a common cause of hypotonic euvolemic hyponatremia?
• Which medication must be gradually discontinued to avoid rebound hypertension if stopped abruptly?
• Which urinalysis finding is typical of glomerulonephritis?
• What is the most common cause of anemia?
• Chest radiographic pattern is most typical for Mycoplasma pneumonia?
• In anterior shoulder dislocation, which associated injuries are commonly present?
• In Class 3 hypovolemic shock, estimated blood loss is between which value?
• What is the initial management step for suspected HIT?
• Which is a stress fracture of the metatarsal?
• Which of the following heart sounds is NOT typically associated with a myocardial infarction?
• In a Rh-negative woman with vaginal bleeding before 12 weeks gestation, what is the indicated Rhogam dose?
• Which of the following is the most common skin cancer?
• The three factors used in the clinical diagnosis of heat stroke are listed below. Which option lists them correctly?
• In suspected ischemic stroke, which test is most useful to determine the arterial source of the thrombus?
• Which of the following is NOT a recognized component of the standard shock definition?
• Elevated cold agglutinin titers are most characteristic of which infection?
• Liquefaction necrosis after a chemical spill on the arm indicates which type of burn?
• What is the name of complete rupture of the extensor tendon at the distal phalanx causing DIP flexion?
• Klebsiella pneumoniae is particularly associated with pneumonia in which populations?
• What is the definitive treatment for constrictive pericarditis?
• In the management of diabetic ketoacidosis, what is considered the most important initial step?
• An 80-year-old patient with abdominal pain and a plain film showing a coffee bean-shaped appearance; the most likely diagnosis is:
• Which disease presents with 'slapped cheeks' and a lacy rash on the arms and legs?
• The fasciotomy should be performed within how many hours to prevent irreversible damage in compartment syndrome?
• What is the most common form of infective endocarditis?
• What deformity predisposes to testicular torsion?
• Which diagnosis best fits a patient with rest angina, transient ST elevations relieved by nitroglycerin, and normal coronary arteries on catheterization?
• If a patient with deep vein thrombosis has active internal bleeding, uncontrolled hypertension, CNS tumor, recent trauma or surgery, or recurrent DVT despite anticoagulation, which alternative treatment should be considered?
• Barotrauma during ascent is due to expansion of gas in body cavities. Which of the following is the correct mechanism?
• Which type of chemical burn is described as coagulation necrosis with eschar after a chemical spill on the arm?
• What is the most common cause of hypomagnesemia?
• Which feature best differentiates diabetic ketoacidosis from hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state?
• What is the definition of hypocalcemia?
• What is the recommended splinting position for mallet finger?
• Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is most commonly due to hypertrophy of which structure, and which heart sound is commonly associated?
• Which natriuretic peptide is released from the ventricles in response to increased wall tension?
• Which of the following is an appropriate initial treatment for sunburn?
• In diving, the most common form of barotrauma occurs during which phase?
• Which organism is responsible for Streptococcal Toxic Shock Syndrome?
• What is a characteristic diagnostic finding for Trichomonas vaginalis infection?
• Temporal lobe involvement on CT is most characteristic of infection with which virus?
• Which of the following describes the classic triad for spinal infection?
• Which medication is used to inhibit peripheral conversion of T4 to T3 in thyroid storm?
• Which organism produces a clinic syndrome similar to appendicitis and is spread via the fecal-oral route?
• Endoscopic injection of which toxin is used in the treatment of achalasia?
• A 3-year-old with acute onset of cough and wheeze. Focal wheezing in the right lower lobe. Which is the most effective treatment for suspected foreign body aspiration?
• Pain followed by erythematous papules in a unilateral dermatomal distribution that turns to vesicles and crusted.
• Noninvasive management options for congestive heart failure include which of the following?
• What physical finding is most characteristic of pericarditis?
• Which regimen is recommended for prosthetic valve endocarditis?
• Initial management of suspected cholera focuses on what?
• For itching in biliary cirrhosis, which therapy is commonly used?
• Diastolic dysfunction means a problem with which cardiac property?
• Which factors are associated with increased risk of death from a major burn?
• Which is the first-line treatment for anaphylactic shock?
• In mushroom poisoning, which finding indicates a good prognosis?
• Which organism is commonly associated with native valve endocarditis?
• Which is an example of isovolemic hypernatremia?
• What medication do we not give with diarrhea according to the material?
• Open or complex tibial fractures are sometimes associated with which complication?
• What is the most common form of tetanus?
• Which is part of the initial management for suspected neurogenic shock?
• Wernicke's area is primarily associated with language comprehension and is located in which lobe?
• A patient with heavy alcohol use presents with severe midepigastric pain radiating to the back and fever; WBC elevated and amylase elevated. The most likely diagnosis is?
• Which of the following are sulfonylureas?
• Which Hymenoptera reaction presents as a systemic anaphylactic reaction?
• For stable patients with suspected traumatic aortic rupture, which imaging modality is commonly used for evaluation?
• Which spider bite is classically associated with a painless bite that can progress to a necrotic eschar?
• Heat syncope is primarily caused by which combination of factors?
• What is the best chance for long-term survival in aplastic anemia?
• Permanent neuronal injury can ensue within how many minutes of continuous seizure activity, even in the absence of apparent convulsions?
• In a patient with back pain and progressive neurological deficits suggesting epidural compression, what is the initial management step?
• What is the maximum possible Glasgow Coma Scale score?
• What are the classic symptoms of aortic stenosis?
• Small bowel and colon injuries are most commonly caused by what type of trauma?
• Tx for sickle cell crisis?
• A classic skin finding in erythema multiforme is what?
• Following trauma to the spine, there is complete paralysis in the legs with loss of temperature and pain sensation, but preserved proprioception and vibratory sense. Dx?
• Rhogam administration during pregnancy is indicated for which maternal-fetal Rh combination?
• In a patient older than 50 with back pain, which condition is a high‑priority life-threatening concern?
• Which bacterium is typically detected by rapid strep testing in pharyngitis?
• Epiglottitis is most commonly seen in children between which ages?
• Pneumonia pathogens have characteristic radiographic patterns. Which pattern is associated with Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia in AIDS patients?
• For a diabetic foot ulcer that is limb- or life-threatening with fever, ischemic changes, and lymphangitis, which management step is indicated?
• Which of the following is part of the PRICE approach for sprains?
• For Streptococcal Toxic Shock Syndrome, which IV antibiotic combination is recommended?
• Which infection is commonly associated with precipitating erythema multiforme?
• Which medication is considered first-line therapy for schizophrenia in this material?
• Tachycardia, hypotension, and acute abdominal tenderness after abdominal trauma indicate what kind of injury?
• Which carpal bone is second most commonly fractured and is the most commonly dislocated?
• In a patient with sickle cell disease presenting with chest pain, fever, tachypnea, and hypoxemia, what is the most likely diagnosis?
• A middle-aged patient with a crescendo-decrescendo systolic murmur best heard at the right upper sternal border radiating to the carotids is most consistent with which diagnosis?
• A patient presents with fatigue, anxiety, and palpitations; exam reveals a midsystolic click. What is the most likely diagnosis?
• In correcting fluids and electrolytes, which should be addressed first?
• West Nile virus typically presents with fever and headache after a mosquito bite. Which is the recommended initial management?
• Which splint is commonly used to immobilize a Rolondos fracture?
• In a patient younger than 18 with back pain, which condition is specifically listed as a concern?
• What is the recommended management for Monteggia fracture?
• In HIV-positive patients with AIDS presenting with ring-enhancing brain lesions, which organism is classically implicated and treated with sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine?
• A 55-year-old woman with hypertension and two-vessel coronary artery bypass graft presents with increasing dyspnea and palpitations. EKG shows atrial flutter with 2:1 AV block and echocardiogram shows normal LV function. Which therapy is most appropriate?
• An athlete presents with swelling of the external ear after blunt traumatic impact. Which is the most appropriate management?
• Which DI type reacts to a water deprivation test?
• A patient with petechiae, diffuse hemorrhages, altered mental status, oliguria, and focal ischemia is most consistent with which diagnosis?
• What is the most common cause of acute arthritis in young adults?
• Charcot-Leyden crystals are associated with which condition?
• A posterior hip dislocation typically presents with which limb position?
• Which scenario would prompt plain radiographs for back pain according to red flags?
• In a patient presenting with chest pain, which finding would most strongly support myocardial infarction?
• Which Rule of Nines component is correctly matched?
• Tx for frostbite?
• Bit by a snake with fang marks in the skin, pain, erythema, ecchymosis, edema extending from the bite, plus nausea/vomiting, perioral paresthesia, and lethargy. Which management step is indicated?
• Pediatric fever algorithm: for children aged 91 days to 3 years who are non-toxic appearing with fever ≥39°C and fully immunized, what is recommended?
• Complications associated with changes in environmental pressure and with breathing compressed gas are known as what?
• Which statement correctly lists vitamin K–dependent clotting factors?
• Which patient profile is at highest risk for myxedema coma?
• For a patient with generalized convulsive status epilepticus, the initial intravenous treatment is which drug?
• What symptom is vaginal purulent discharge caused by?
• During pertussis, the catarrhal stage most closely resembles which condition?
• In an asthmatic or COPD patient, what is the typical progression of CO2 and oxygen that indicates impending respiratory failure?
• What is the antibiotic prophylaxis for open fractures?
• What is the high-risk cutoff for the GRACE score in ACS risk stratification?
• A 16-year-old male with left orbital trauma has diplopia on extraocular movement testing, enophthalmos, and decreased sensation over the left cheek. Imaging shows an orbital fracture. What is the most likely fracture type?
• Which radiographic sign is associated with pancreatitis on X-ray, as mentioned in the material?
• Which laboratory finding most strongly suggests a cholestatic process?
• Among imaging options for suspected aortic dissection, which is most commonly performed in the ED due to being less invasive?
• Which set of findings defines malignant hypertension in this material?
• With knee ligamentous injuries -- which ligament is not usually treated with surgery?
• What is the initial management step for suspected tension pneumothorax?
• Which is a common cause of metabolic alkalosis?
• For Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis, what is the initial management?
• What is a positive Kehr sign indicative of?
• For an abscess with suspected MRSA, which antibiotic is an option for coverage?
• Which symptoms are commonly associated with cardiomyopathy?
• In trauma, the FAST exam has replaced which technique for evaluating hemodynamically unstable patients?
• What nerve injury is associated with a femoral shaft or lateral tibial plateau fracture?
• What is the initial treatment for suspected carbon monoxide poisoning?
• A patient with chronic kidney disease presents with bradycardia, flaccid paralysis, ileus, and a peaked T wave on ECG. Which lab abnormality is most likely?
• Which two medications are commonly used to treat alcohol withdrawal in the emergency department?
• What combination defines diabetic ketoacidosis in terms of glucose, bicarbonate, and pH?
• A 1-year-old with easy bruising presents with swelling and warmth over the knee due to hemarthrosis. Which physical finding would you expect?
• In trauma during pregnancy, what position is recommended to avoid supine hypotension syndrome?
• In a high ankle sprain, which ligament is injured?
• In atrial flutter, which medication is useful for chronic atrial flutter heart rate management or for maintaining sinus rhythm after cardioversion?
• What are the characteristics of 4th degree frostbite?
• A 56-year-old male presents with edema, hypoalbuminemia, heavy proteinuria, and lipiduria with a normal GFR. What is the most likely diagnosis?
• A patient presents with small grey vesicles and punched-out ulcers in the posterior pharynx. Which organism most likely causes this presentation?
• In a 2-year-old with fever and a brief generalized seizure lasting less than 15 minutes, which diagnosis is most likely?
• What is an appropriate first-line antibiotic treatment for gonorrhea?
• A patient presents with spaghetti and meatballs appearance on KOH preparation. What is the most likely diagnosis?
• Which finding best indicates an MCL or LCL tear?
• Which of the following is part of the classic pentad of Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura?
• In a patient with sudden hypotension, muffled heart sounds, pulsus paradoxus, and echocardiography showing a large pericardial effusion, what is the most appropriate next step in management?
• A 2-year-old with acute abdominal pain and bloody diarrhea most likely has which diagnosis?
• Tx for mild hemophilia?
• A 64-year-old man with perforated sigmoid colon undergoes emergent surgery. Which operation is most appropriate in an unprepared patient?
• Which action is an appropriate initial step in treating hypothermia?
• C5 radiculopathy typically presents with weakness in which muscle groups?
• Which of the following is NOT a listed cause of hypomagnesemia?
• Which knee structure is most likely injured in an anterior cruciate ligament tear during a non-contact pivoting injury?
• A patient develops profuse watery diarrhea after shellfish consumption with dehydration. What is the most likely diagnosis and initial treatment?
• In a patient actively seizing, which is the first-line parenteral medication to administer?
• Match the cerebral lobes to their primary functions: Frontal Lobe, Parietal Lobe, Temporal Lobe, Occipital Lobe.
• What is the gold standard for diagnosis of intestinal ischemia?
• Which test is essential to evaluating hemolytic anemia?
• TIMI and GRACE scoring systems stratify risk in which condition?
• A painless lump on the dorsum of the wrist that recurs is most consistent with which diagnosis?
• What is a standard initial pharmacologic approach to treating congestive heart failure?
• Which fracture is an isolated ulna fracture?
• For mild bronchiolitis, which treatment is commonly used?
• Following severe retching and a strenuous lifting session, which diagnosis best explains hematemesis in this patient?
• Acute inflammation of the lacrimal gland is called what?
• Calcium channel blocker overdose typically presents with which effect on blood sugar?
• Severe dehydration is diagnosed with signs such as dry mucosa and tachycardia; what IV regimen best matches this scenario?
• Which organism is involved in Toxic Shock Syndrome?
• If epistaxis does not respond to anterior packing, which type of epistaxis should be suspected?
• Which is the leading cause of lost work time and disability for people under age 45?
• Which of the following is a common complication of late hypothermia?
• Which frostbite degree is characterized by freezing deep to muscle, tendon, and bone?
• Which treatment option is indicated for epiglottitis in an emergency setting?
• Erythema multiforme that involves mucous membranes is known as which condition?
• Which treatment is recommended for flea bites?
• Ground glass appearance of the cornea after a chemical splash to the eye indicates which burn type?
• An adult woman has a witnessed generalized seizure with tongue biting and urinary incontinence, followed by a postictal state. The most likely etiology is?
• What is the first-line management step for contact dermatitis?
• Chronic back pain is defined as pain lasting more than which duration?
• Which class of medication should be avoided in the management of fecal impaction due to constipation?
• Which leg position suggests an anterior hip dislocation?
• In S1 radiculopathy, which area of sensation is affected?
• Bethesda inhibitor assay is for measuring the amount of antibody against factors in Hemophilia A and B.
• In a patient with chest pain where MI is ruled out, which history clue might suggest GI-induced chest pain?
• Which fracture is a Y-shaped three-part fracture of the thumb at the carpometacarpal joint?
• Which shoulder reduction technique uses traction plus counter-traction to reduce a dislocated shoulder?
• Which structures can sense pain in the brain?
• What is generally the first imaging study for suspected testicular torsion?
• Baseline fetal heart rate range is between which of the following?
• Orchitis is an inflammation of the testes often due to which virus?
• Erysipelas is characterized by infection of the dermis with lymphatic involvement and raised margins; which antibiotic regimen is commonly used?
• In CRAO, the macula appears on exam as which of the following?
• Temporary loss of reflexes after trauma to the spine is diagnosed as what?
• Pediatric fever algorithm: for children aged 28 days to 3 months with fever ≥38°C, what is recommended?
• Which obstetric condition is defined as hypertension (>140/90) with proteinuria and edema during pregnancy?
• What is the most common type of hip dislocation?
• Which rotator cuff muscle is most commonly injured?
• During a physical exam after a nasal bone fracture, which finding must you look for to prevent ischemic necrosis of the nasal septum?
• Which medication is recommended for pericardial inflammation syndrome?
• What are the three phases of Lyme disease?
• RMSF is caused by which organism?
• Yellow fever virus family?
• The classic triad of symptoms for a valvular disease is abbreviated ASH. Which three features are included?
• Which medication inhibits aqueous humor production as part of reducing intraocular pressure in acute angle-closure glaucoma?
• Which topical treatment is used for scabies from the neck down?
• In patients with life-threatening dysrhythmias causing syncope, what is the recommended treatment?
• Austin-Flint murmur is typically seen with which valve lesion?
• A 45-year-old man presents with hematemesis and melena; he has NSAID use and alcohol; an NG tube yields bright red blood that does not clear with saline. What is the next best step in management?
• Which electrolyte levels should be monitored to avoid digoxin toxicity in a heart failure patient?
• What is the historical common name for injury to the ulnar collateral ligament of the thumb at the base of the first metacarpophalangeal joint due to forced abduction?
• Stones less than how many millimeters have about 90% chance of passing spontaneously?
• How can some people survive a lightning strike?
• What is the most common etiologic organism causing spinal infection?
• A patient with a history of SVT who failed vagal maneuvers is given a drug that acutely terminates the arrhythmia by slowing conduction through the AV node. Which drug is the first-line choice?
• What causes pseudohyperkalemia?
• Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome management includes:
• Flea bites, fever, painful and suppurative bubos in the groin.
• Which description best fits a local reaction to Hymenoptera stings?
• Why should vaginal examination be avoided in a patient with suspected placenta previa?
• Which presentation includes jaw stiffness and risus sardonicus with muscle rigidity and spasms?
• Which of the following is a common complication of tibial fractures?
• Cellulitis is infection of which tissue layer?
• Secondary hypertension is defined as hypertension due to an identifiable cause.
• What is the definitive treatment for testicular torsion?
• What are the imaging modalities of choice for suspected cholecystitis and appendicitis, respectively?
• What is the standard initial treatment for an acute myocardial infarction?
• Which condition is inflammatory cystic acne on the face of a young woman treated with prednisone and outpatient dermatology referral?
• What is the most common identifiable cause of dilated cardiomyopathy?
• Which combination of medications is commonly used to treat alcohol withdrawal in the emergency department?
• Nitroglycerin may provide relief in which conditions?
• Which medication directly inhibits glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptors on platelets to prevent aggregation?
• What are the three most common causes of DIC?
• In a patient with symptomatic third-degree AV block and syncope, what is the definitive treatment?
• What is a typical initial treatment for metabolic alkalosis?
• In aplastic anemia, transfusing red blood cells in small volumes over several hours can help prevent complications; giving units too rapidly can lead to which complication?
• Which primary survey step focuses on visualizing any hidden injuries by exposing the patient?
• In a trauma patient with suspected cardiac tamponade presenting with hypotension, JVD, and muffled heart sounds, what is the most appropriate first-line management?
• Which disease is characterized by a strawberry tongue and a sandpaper-like rash following streptococcal pharyngitis?
• An elderly man with diabetes presents with dehydration and confusion after being found outdoors in cold weather. Which condition is most likely to explain his acute mental status changes?
• If CT is unavailable, which test can be used as an alternative for diagnosing aortic dissection?
• Which combination of approximate systolic blood pressures correctly matches the presence of pulses at the radial, femoral, and carotid arteries?
• Which pathogen causes malaria?
• Which metronidazole regimen is recommended for Trichomoniasis?
• In a ruptured ovarian cyst with suspected internal bleeding, which finding would indicate the need for emergent gynecologic surgery?
• In moderate or major thermal burns, which airway management step is recommended if there are signs of airway burn?
• Which biomarker is most sensitive for myocardial necrosis?
• Which fracture pattern is produced by a rotational force?
• An 8-month-old with RSV bronchiolitis; which finding most strongly indicates a need for hospital admission and continued monitoring?
• Which of the following is classified as a positive symptom of schizophrenia?
• Central Retinal Artery Occlusion presents with acute, painless, monocular vision loss and risk factors such as hypertension, atrial fibrillation, and atherosclerosis. Which condition is described?
• Valgus laxity of the knee generally indicates injury to which ligament?
• A 46-year-old woman presents with wrist pain and a jelly-like bump on the dorsum of the wrist. What is the most likely diagnosis?
• Which finding would confirm a diaphragmatic injury following trauma?
• What is the most common complaint in sickle cell patients?
• Mallory-Weiss tears occur after retching and involve tears of the underlying which vascular structure?
• Which agent and combination is listed as the agent of choice for lowering BP in hypertensive encephalopathy, intracranial bleeding, and heart failure, with consideration for dissecting aneurysm?
• If initial ultrasound for suspected cholecystitis is inconclusive, which imaging study can confirm the diagnosis?
• Which is true of encephalitis CSF findings?
• What finding is commonly observed in malaria infection?
• Which pathogen is frequently associated with undercooked poultry or contaminated natural water sources?
• Which population is at highest risk for Wernicke encephalopathy due to thiamine deficiency?
• What is the term for a radial head subluxation in a young child following pulling on an arm?
• In the functional classification of heart failure, which class is described as having no cardiac symptoms with ordinary activity?
• Treatment for acetaminophen toxicity when the level is 150 mg/dL at 4 hours after ingestion includes which of the following?
• Which symptom is commonly associated with hypokalemia?
• What is the most commonly used anticoagulant therapy in the US?
• A scuba diver has hearing loss, tinnitus, vertigo, and a positive fistula test. What is the diagnosis and initial management?
• Which organism most commonly causes erysipelas?
• A 4-year-old child ingested a substance found in a purse, causing vomiting and abdominal pain. Which medication is most likely involved?
• Boxer's fracture describes a fracture of which bone?
• Which Le Fort fracture describes craniofacial disjunction with the entire face separated from the skull?
• A patient presents with splenomegaly, fatigue, and LAD. Pt reveals she has had a sore throat for 2 weeks. What might we see on a blood smear?
• Which hepatitis can become chronic?
• What is the most reliable sign of compartment syndrome?
• Hyphema refers to blood in which part of the eye?
• What is the best way to assess blood volume status in an acute setting?
• What describes the role of ursodeoxycholic acid in biliary cirrhosis?
• A 15 year-old male with URI is now presenting with bilateral hilar infiltrates on chest X-ray, normal WBC, and elevated cold agglutinin titer. Most likely diagnosis?
• Which antiviral is commonly used to treat influenza when started early?
• Optic disc swelling caused by increased intracranial pressure is known as:
• Restrictive pericarditis treatment includes diuretics and which intervention?
• What is the recommended method of tick removal?
• How is anterior epistaxis managed according to the material?
• Seatbelt injury is most commonly associated with which fracture?
• Which condition is defined by excess mucus production and a productive cough for at least 3 months per year for two consecutive years?
• In ocular chemical burns, what is the initial management step?
• A 66-year-old woman with nephrotic syndrome on prednisone presents with cough and dyspnea. Which diagnosis is highly suspected due to the hypercoagulable state associated with nephrotic syndrome?
• Which medication is commonly used to acutely lower blood pressure in hypertensive emergencies?
• A Colles fracture typically involves which direction of the distal fragment's tilt?
• A patient with hip surgery presents with tachycardia, tachypnea, and hypoxia. What is the best test to diagnose suspected pulmonary embolism?
• Portal hypertension in biliary cirrhosis most commonly leads to which complication?
• Which lab value is most likely elevated in a patient with acute cholecystitis and jaundice?
• Which AV block is defined by a sudden block in a P wave with no change in PR interval?
• Which item is NOT included in the SAD PERSONS suicide risk assessment?
• Which of the following is NOT a component of the NEXUS criteria for clearing the cervical spine?
• Which EKG findings are classic in hypokalemia?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the four syndromes of severe arbovirus infection?
• A painless lump on the wrist that recurs is most consistent with which diagnosis?
• What is the most common cause of pericarditis?
• Which pair of organisms are most commonly implicated as etiologic agents for bacterial meningitis in young adults living in dormitories?
• Which type of hyponatremia is characterized by hyponatremia with no signs of dehydration or volume retention?
• Which statement correctly lists the axes of the DSM-IV as I, II, III, and IV?
• In the Glasgow Coma Scale, which description corresponds to an Eye Opening score of 3?
• What core temperature defines heat stroke?
• Which respiratory pattern is commonly observed in alcoholic ketoacidosis?
• Which laboratory finding is most characteristic of a cholestatic liver disease such as biliary cirrhosis?
• Lyme disease is caused by which organism?
• Bloody diarrhea and fever developing within 24-48 hours after eating contaminated food. Dx and tx.
• Chest pain reproducible with palpation is most consistent with which diagnosis?
• Which principle explains that increasing preload can increase the ejection fraction of the ventricle?
• A distal tibia fracture in a 5-year-old with separation of the epiphysis and a small chip fracture of the metaphysis corresponds to which Salter-Harris type?
• _____ is due to reduction in volume of the lumbar spinal canal, causing compression and paralysis, and presents with leg weakness and loss of urinary and anal sphincter control.
• Which condition is commonly caused by immune-mediated destruction of platelets leading to isolated thrombocytopenia?
• What are the 6 levels of motor response in the Glasgow Coma Scale?
• In suspected glaucoma, intraocular pressure is typically above which value?
• Which virus most commonly causes bronchiolitis?
• In managing atrial flutter, which drug would be most appropriate if pressor support is required rather than rate control or rhythm conversion?
• According to CDC guidelines, what induration size is considered positive for persons born in high prevalence areas or IV drug users?
• Which vaccine has dropped the incidence of epiglottitis?
• In the management of an unstable ankle sprain, which course is recommended?
• What is the recommended action if there is no improvement after four months of hepatitis B treatment?
• Inversion ankle sprain typically injures which ligament first?
• Which statement describes Type 1 von Willebrand disease?
• Which age group is least likely to experience a dislocation or sprain when significant stress is placed on joints?
• In tetanus-prone wounds, which situation warrants TIG in addition to vaccination?
• Hypernatremia is defined as serum sodium above what level?
• Which condition is the leading cause of death in myocardial infarction?
• Which of the following is an appropriate treatment for lice infestation?
• Which physical finding indicates poor peripheral perfusion in shock?
• Aortic stenosis is most likely to be the cause of syncope in which population?
• Pulmonary ______ occurs when resistance to flow across the pulmonary vasculature increases.
• Which radiographic views should be obtained if a patellar fracture is suspected?
• Which test detects PROM by measuring the pH of amniotic fluid and is alkaline when PROM is present?
• Hot water immersion is recommended for which marine injuries?
• Which statement correctly identifies factors that shift potassium into cells?
• A 55-year-old woman with a history of mitral valve replacement and mitral stenosis presents with increasing dyspnea on exertion and palpitations. ECG shows atrial flutter with 2:1 AV block. Her INR has been therapeutic for 4 weeks. What is the most appropriate next step in treatment?
• A shortened, deformed, painful leg after a motor vehicle accident most likely indicates which injury?
• In suspected traumatic thoracic aorta injury, which bedside imaging is indicated for unstable patients?
• Hip dislocations are often associated with which fracture?
• Which intravenous fluid is recommended in alcoholic ketoacidosis?
• Which of the following is a contraindication to tissue plasminogen activator (TPA) therapy?
• Renal tubular acidosis is best described as which type of metabolic acidosis?
• In Class 3 hypovolemic shock, the respiratory rate is?
• Transudates occur when systemic factors that control formation and absorption of pleural fluid are altered.
• Mitral stenosis is best heard when the patient is in which position?
• A 21-year-old female with a cast on her arm develops extreme pain. Permanent muscle damage from compartment syndrome begins after how many hours of ischemia?
• Which AV block is defined by a prolonged PR interval?
• What are the adjunctive tx for fibrinolysis or PCI?
• Dengue fever management?
• Which description best matches the typical pain of pancreatitis?
• How long after a myocardial infarction can CK-MB and troponin I elevations be detected according to the source?
• Hypercalcemia is treated with which of the following as initial therapy?
• Treatment for cysticercosis tapeworm.
• What is the most common arbovirus in returning travelers?
• Painless indurated genital ulcer on the genitals is most consistent with which diagnosis?
• Which disease classically shows a widened mediastinum and hilar adenopathy with no focal infiltrate on chest X-ray?
• An elderly woman with wrist pain near the anatomic snuffbox after a fall; which carpal bone is most likely fractured?
• Reperfusion should take place before how many hours from symptom onset?
• Biot breathing is most commonly seen in which condition?
• A circular plaque with scales and a raised border on the trunk describes which condition?
• Which of the following is a neurologic effect listed for malignant hypertension?
• ST elevations in leads II, III, and aVF indicate infarction in which territory and artery?
• Sensory testing for the radial nerve includes which area?
• Which statement about troponin testing is true?
• A diffuse macular erythroderma rash is classically associated with which syndrome?
• Which symptom is more characteristic of scorpion envenomation than a black widow bite?
• A 54-year-old man presents with crampy abdominal pain and vomiting; not passed gas or stool for 10 hours. Abdomen distends; cecal distension to 12 cm. What is the most appropriate definitive management?
• What is the most common cause of hypocalcemia?
• Asthma or COPD: which antihypertensive should be avoided?
• A person recently swam and now has watery diarrhea, fever, cramping, and N/V. Which organism is most likely, and what is a treatment option?
• Abscess management after incision and drainage: which statement describes when antibiotics are necessary?
• Chance fracture is a fracture through which vertebral columns?
• Which pulse finding is classically associated with aortic regurgitation?
• Which of the following is a distributive (vasodilatory) shock type?
• A 40-year-old female with fatigue, widespread muscle tenderness, and sleep disturbance; what is the most likely diagnosis?
• Which respiration pattern is commonly seen in diabetic ketoacidosis but not in Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic State?
• Ranson criteria are used to predict mortality in which condition?
• Mastitis in lactating women can be complicated by what, which would require incision and drainage?
• For tinea barbae, which systemic antifungal agent is listed as a treatment option?
• In pediatric hematogenous osteomyelitis, which bone is most commonly involved?
• Painful grouped vesicles on an erythematous base.
• A patient presents to the ER after pituitary surgery with polyuria and polydipsia; what is the diagnosis?
• Stage 2 hypertension is defined as greater than which blood pressure value?
• Which COPD phenotype is associated with the term 'blue bloater'?
• Cardiac Marker: _____ is detectable within 1-2 hours after acute MI and has duration <1 day with low specificity.
• Active elbow extension is primarily produced by which muscle?
• Which description of synovial fluid is most consistent with septic arthritis?
• What is the most common vector of disease transmission?
• In pneumonia empiric treatment, which category corresponds to CAP requiring inpatient treatment?
• Which statement about Brown-Sequard syndrome is true?
• When calcium is low, PTH increases and leads to what effect on bone and renal calcium handling?
• In an elderly patient on chronic steroids presenting with a subacute meningitis picture (headache, neck stiffness, photophobia) but afebrile, which diagnosis is most likely?
• In a hypoglycemic diabetic patient with confusion and sweating, what is the most appropriate initial treatment?
• The fern test detects crystallization of salts in the amniotic fluid. Which test is this describing?
• Activated charcoal is generally not effective for which toxin categories?
• Which ECG finding may be seen in pericardial tamponade, and which bedside imaging helps confirm the diagnosis?
• Initial treatment for an ankle fracture includes which of the following?
• Which electrolyte disturbance presents with absent deep tendon reflexes and hypotension in severe cases?
• What nerve injury is associated with an acetabulum fracture?
• Which of the following is an ADP receptor blocker that inhibits platelet aggregation?
• Which of the following is a major criterion in the Duke criteria for diagnosing infective endocarditis?
• What is the treatment for cauda equina syndrome?
• Nerve injury most commonly associated with a humeral shaft fracture?
• For more severe bronchiolitis, which therapy may be added?
• In acid-base assessment, a HCO3- + AG − 12 value greater than 30 indicates what?
• What is the antidote for digoxin toxicity?
• Which fracture is a distal radius fracture with dislocation of the distal radioulnar joint at the wrist?
• Initial heart failure management commonly includes which combination?
• Which statement best defines the pain duration categories: acute, subacute, and chronic?
• In Class 3 hypovolemic shock, urine output is?
• In a patient with myocardial infarction who also has heart failure, which therapy is commonly recommended?
• In cardiac tamponade, which procedure provides immediate relief?
• Which of the following is a cause of hypocalcemia?
• A delirious 8-year-old with influenza and noninflammatory CSF, liver enlargement, and vomiting—what is the most likely diagnosis?
• In the described case of unknown drug use and fever, why is a urine drug screen not the most helpful diagnostic test?
• Which of the following is a hallmark feature of heat stroke?
• After successful conversion from a narrow complex SVT, which medication may be used for rhythm control?
• During treatment of diabetic ketoacidosis or hyperglycemic hyperosmolar state, which electrolyte must be monitored and possibly supplemented to prevent hypokalemia?
• What is the gold standard imaging for diagnosing suspected bladder injury after trauma?
• Panic disorder is frequently encountered in the ED and the s/s mimic those of other illnesses. What tests should be done for the diagnosis of exclusion?
• Gonococcal urethritis typically presents with what symptom?
• Visual changes and ocular pain in periorbital versus orbital infections are more suggestive of which condition?
• Which infection is diagnosed by a saline wet prep showing motile, flagellated organisms?
• In disseminated intravascular coagulation, which transfusion product is listed as a treatment option?
• A wedge fracture is caused by which mechanism?
• Fusiform cerebral aneurysms typically develop in which artery?
• In an HIV-positive patient with multiple ring-enhancing brain lesions and edema, which treatment is the choice?
• In trauma during pregnancy, which interventions should be avoided unless OB/GYN consultation is obtained?
• What is the main goal of therapy for fluid resuscitation in burn patients?
• Observation alone can be used as the primary management strategy in pediatric head injury when which condition is present?
• Which statement best describes the clinical features of thyroid storm?
• Which statement is true about distributive shock?
• According to CDC guidelines, what induration size is considered positive in HIV-positive individuals or those with HIV risk factors?
• Heat tetany is best managed by which initial step?
• Which COPD phenotype is described as 'pink puffer'?
• Which of the following is a potential consequence of correcting sodium too rapidly in a patient with hypernatremia?
• In diabetic ketoacidosis, which pattern of breathing is characteristic?
• In a patient with acute retroviral syndrome, which laboratory test best confirms the diagnosis?
• Which intervention may be indicated for severe barbiturate toxicity but is ineffective for benzodiazepines?
• A fracture involving the medial epicondyle will most likely damage which nerve?
• Bradycardia and hypotension following trauma to the spine indicate which condition?
• What acid-base disturbance is characteristic of diabetic ketoacidosis?
• Liver disease bleeding management: which treatment is used when there is active bleeding or before surgery?
• Fever, malaise, vesicular rash at various stages on face and trunk is most consistent with which disease?
• In patients with chest pain, a history of dyspnea is associated with what relative increase in mortality?
• If hyponatremia is corrected too quickly, what neurologic complication can occur?
• Which clinical sign is most characteristic of diabetic ketoacidosis?
• Which topical therapy is commonly used as first-line treatment for psoriasis?
• Which statement about typhoid fever matches the described clinical picture?
• Heinz bodies indicate which deficiency or condition?
• Which is a recognized treatment for ciguatera poisoning?
• In a patient with gastritis presenting with hematemesis, which test is most sensitive for diagnosing the condition?
• Which drug is the drug of choice for acute hypertensive encephalopathy?
• Late hypothermia symptom?
• In diabetic ketoacidosis, which pH value is typically observed?
• In suspected acute epiglottitis, which diagnostic test is indicated to assess airway risk?
• The definitive imaging test to order when a patient has back pain with neurological deficits is:
• What is assessed in the Glasgow Coma Scale?
• Which antidote is used for opiate and heroin overdose?
• What are the most common causes of cardiomyopathy?
• Intense perianal itching in a child. Which infection is most likely?
• Recent travel with fever, cough, abdominal pain, constipation, prostration, bradycardia followed by rose spots on trunk.
• If a patient has a cough on ACE inhibitors, which medication class should be used instead?
• In pediatric patients, which joint is the most commonly dislocated?
• Which antibiotic is used to treat the ulceroglandular form of tularemia?
• Which of the following is a relative contraindication to thrombolytic therapy?
• Which antibiotic option is listed for septic shock management?
• Which type of chemical burn is generally more destructive to tissue, acid or alkali?
• In Class 2 hypovolemic shock, blood pressure is described as:
• In adults, which joints are dislocated more frequently than the elbow?
• In first trimester vaginal bleeding, which type of abortion is defined by an open cervical os with no products of conception expelled?
• What is the name of the injury characterized by catastrophic brain swelling after a second concussion before prior symptoms have resolved?
• Which option is NOT a named incomplete spinal cord syndrome?
• Clear, tense vesicles and bullae on head, trunk and mucous membranes. Bullae rupture in 2-3 days producing painful denuded areas.
• Which pathogen is most commonly acquired from eating undercooked beef and can cause hemolytic uremic syndrome and thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura?
• For acute sinusitis, antibiotics should not be started until at least how many days have passed since onset?
• Cerebral perfusion pressure is calculated as MAP minus ICP. Brain ischemia occurs when CPP falls below what value?
• Prolonged bleeding after trauma with normal PT and PTT. Dx and tx?
• In infections with Shiga toxin–producing Escherichia coli, which intervention is contraindicated?
• A 20-month-old with fever and a brief generalized seizure; which description best fits this event?
• An elderly alcoholic with dyspnea and edema; which is the most likely cause of high-output heart failure?
• Which laboratory finding would most directly indicate anemia?
• Pulsus paradoxus is most commonly associated with which condition?
• Which Salter-Harris fracture types involve cartilage of both the articular surface and growth plate and usually require open reduction and internal fixation?
• In a child with a minor closed head injury and brief loss of consciousness, which imaging modality is most appropriate for initial assessment?
• For peripheral artery disease, which therapeutic measures are commonly used?
• What is the most common cause of hypokalemia?
• Which therapy removes potassium from the body via the gastrointestinal tract?
• Which medication is commonly used to treat erythema multiforme?
• Empiric therapy for cellulitis should cover which organisms?
• In lunate or perilunate dislocations, what complication is of primary concern due to neurovascular compromise?
• For severe high altitude illness, which combination of medications is recommended?
• Oxygen supplementation should be considered when oxygen saturation falls below what level?
• Which disease is described by cycles of fever and chills after recent travel, with splenomegaly and anemia?
• Stevens-Johnson syndrome requires admission to which level of care?
• Abdominal pain, severe anemia, and red burrows underneath the skin are characteristic of which infection?
• Ischemic strokes are not visible on noncontrast CT until at least how many hours after brain infarction?
• Pain crisis in sickle cell disease is treated by what approach?
• Which organism is commonly associated with contamination of eggs, dairy products, or poultry?
• Which organism is most commonly associated with infective endocarditis in intravenous drug users?
• Physostigmine is used with caution in anticholinergic toxicity because of risks including hypersalivation, AV block, seizures. Which drug's adverse effects limit its use?
• Which combination best describes the typical presentation of acute pericarditis?
• A 3-year-old boy presents with acute onset of cough and wheezing. Focal wheezing is heard in the right lower lung. Which test should be ordered to confirm the suspected diagnosis?
• Which injury is an UCL injury of the thumb metacarpophalangeal joint, with or without fracture?
• Which of the following is a common CNS complication of infective endocarditis?
• Which illness presents with abrupt onset of fever, chills, headache, myalgia, malaise, sore throat, and bilateral tender cervical lymph nodes?
• Kussmaul sign is seen in which condition?
• Most thoracolumbar fractures are located between which vertebral levels?
• Herald patch preceding a diffuse eruption in a Christmas-tree pattern along skin lines is characteristic of which condition?
• In acute tricyclic antidepressant overdose, which intervention addresses sodium channel blockade and is commonly used as part of management?
• Hemophilia A is treated with which clotting factor?
• Which treatment is recommended for respiratory alkalosis due to anxiety?
• Which two diagnostic tools are used to rule out an ectopic pregnancy?
• Osler nodes and Janeway lesions are clinical clues to which condition?
• Which triad is associated with intracranial hypertension?
• In Class 3 hypovolemic shock, blood volume lost is between which percent?
• Which of the following is a biomechanical factor contributing to patellofemoral syndrome?
• Name one scoring system that begins with the letter H and is used to guide ACS treatment.
• Which antibiotic is paired with cefazolin for open fracture prophylaxis?
• Auricular hematomas are at increased risk of developing which condition?
• Which distal radius fracture is defined by volar (palmar) angulation of the distal radius fragment?
• Chvostek sign is elicited by tapping which nerve?
• How are burns categorized?
• In trauma, hyperresonance to percussion is most consistent with which diagnosis?
• In sexually active adolescents, which organism is a common cause of septic arthritis?
• Which of the following is NOT a listed cause of hypothermia?
• An 18-year-old woman presents with fever, confusion, and a petechial rash. CSF analysis shows elevated WBCs, elevated protein, and decreased glucose. Which organism is most likely the cause of bacterial meningitis in this age group?
• For suspected testicular torsion, which imaging modality is the diagnostic imaging of choice to confirm the diagnosis?
• If bradyarrhythmias are not responsive to atropine, what additional management should be considered?
• What is the most common pathogen for foodborne disease?
• Which valvular heart disease is most commonly associated with syncope?
• For a hemodynamically unstable symptomatic complete heart block, which is the most immediate management option?
• L4 radiculopathy typically presents with weakness in which muscle?
• In the treatment of achalasia, which medication can act as a muscle relaxant?
• What is the hallmark of pit viper envenomation?
• Posterior epistaxis arises from the Woodruff plexus; which option lists the correct plexus?
• Brudzinski sign is described as spontaneous hip flexion during attempted passive neck flexion.
• Erythematous pharynx, enlarged tonsils, and yellow-white exudate suggest infection with which organism?
• Hepatitis D must you have co-infection with which hepatitis?
• The management of isopropyl alcohol ingestion is largely what?
• In suspected alcoholic ketoacidosis, what is the critical initial management step before giving dextrose?
• Which tick-borne illness is associated with fever, photophobia, and a petechial rash after tick exposure in the western United States mountains?
• Spinal shock is typically characterized by which finding?
• Which method is most reliable for confirming endotracheal tube placement at the time of intubation?
• In the described acute pericarditis case, which cardiac biomarker is more likely to be elevated?
• For chemical spills involving metals such as sodium, lithium, calcium, or magnesium, what irrigation fluid is preferred?
• What is the net acid-base disturbance typically seen in salicylate overdose?
• A 76-year-old man with dyspnea and signs of congestive heart failure would most likely have which abdominal finding due to hepatic congestion?
• Which signs are associated with Eastern Coral Snake envenomation?
• What radiographic sign is commonly seen on AP and lateral neck radiographs in croup?
• In cellulitis, which antibiotic is an appropriate first-line option when MRSA risk is present?
• In epididymitis among men under 40, the usual pathogens are from which category?
• To evaluate suspected biliary cirrhosis, which initial set of tests is most appropriate to order?
• In addition to MONA, which combination of medications is commonly used in the management of myocardial infarction?
• What is the approximate mortality range for ARDS?
• Which drug is used to treat Leishmaniasis?
• Which finding is NOT part of Beck's triad in cardiac tamponade?
• Which disease features lesions that have a depression in the center and are all at the same stage, spreading from the face/arms to trunk/legs?
• Which imaging studies and signs are typically seen in congestive heart failure?
• The most common intracranial aneurysm is a berry aneurysm located in which vascular territory?
• In hemolytic anemia, which laboratory value is typically decreased?
• In overdose decontamination, which method is most commonly used?
• Shigellosis is treated with which antibiotic?
• What two meds should be given to all ACS patients that do not have contraindications?
• A 66-year-old woman presents with abdominal pain and distension. Imaging shows distended bowel loops with haustral markings. Which etiology is most likely the cause of this large bowel obstruction?
• In severe hypothermia, which warming method is preferred for rapid rewarming?
• Recent travel with high fever, headache, N/V, myalgia followed by a rash.
• Which fracture is a distal radius fracture with dorsal displacement, commonly resulting from a fall on an outstretched hand (FOOSH)?
• A patient presents with left upper quadrant pain and imaging shows intraperitoneal blood with rebound tenderness. What is the suspected diagnosis?
• A positive Coombs test indicates which condition?
• What serum sodium level defines hypernatremia?
• Beta-blocker overdose commonly causes which effect on blood sugar?
• Which mnemonic is used to remember the signs of arterial insufficiency?
• Which procedure is commonly performed to evaluate and drain a pleural effusion?
• Which congenital heart disease is classically associated with cyanosis due to a right-to-left shunt?
• Which radiographic signs on abdominal X-ray are associated with pancreatitis?
• Which hematoma results from venous injury and has a slower onset after head trauma, with symptoms such as headache and confusion?
• A patient with hip fracture is suspected after an elderly fall. Which fracture best fits a shortened leg with external rotation?
• Trauma to the abdomen with signs of blood loss and peritoneal contamination indicates which type of injury?
• Subacute back pain duration is defined as pain lasting between which weeks?
• Troponin elevations are not reliable until after how many hours?
• What is the initial management step for an adolescent presenting with status epilepticus?
• CSF findings in herpes simplex encephalitis typically include which of the following?
• Lactated Ringer's solution is contraindicated in patients who are likely to have which condition?
• After a recent sexual assault, which measure is most critical to improve prognosis?
• When should visual acuity and pH testing be performed after an ocular chemical splash?
• Which condition presents with sudden onset of eye pain, blurred vision, headache, nausea/vomiting and halos around lights?
• Which burn depth is described as pink hemorrhagic markings that involve the epidermis and dermis, are moist and painful?
• Which statement correctly describes Type 3 pelvic fracture?
• How long should Plavix/Clopidogrel be used for drug-eluting stents?
• Beclomethasone (Qvar) is what type of drug?
• Which spider has an antivenom that can be given for acute symptoms?
• In electrical injuries, which age group is more likely to experience high voltage injuries at work?
• What imaging study is the imaging study of choice for suspected kidney stones?
• What is the gold standard imaging for diagnosing suspected kidney injury after trauma?
• Recent travel followed by localized inflammation at the site of a fly bite that evolves into a painless chancre with intermittent fevers, rash, and behavioral or neurologic changes. Which diagnosis best fits this presentation?
• Which staining method is used to identify Plasmodium on a blood smear?
• Back pain with a positive crossed straight leg test and diminished reflexes is most consistent with which diagnosis?
• Back pain that worsens with walking and improves with rest is most consistent with which condition?
• Which laboratory finding may be seen in Ehrlichiosis?
• Kehr sign is defined as what?
• Fracture along the length of the radius with injury at the distal radioulnar joint is known as which fracture?
• For asymptomatic hypocalcemia, what is the recommended treatment?
• Which practice is NOT recommended in marine trauma wound care?
• In Class 3 hypovolemic shock, mental status is described as?
• Hypertensive emergency with encephalopathy: which finding would you expect on examination?
• Which of the following is NOT among the five T's?
• Which feature is more typical of epididymitis than testicular torsion?
• Which of the following lists the components of the Primary Survey in trauma care?
• Hypercalcemia commonly presents on ECG with which change?
• The recommended door-to-balloon time for PCI in STEMI is how many minutes?
• Pulsus paradoxus is most commonly associated with which condition?
• What are the characteristics of 2nd degree frostbite?
• Which CSF finding is typical of Guillain-Barré syndrome?
• Abrupt onset diarrhea with blood and mucous, fever, tenesmus, malaise. Dx and tx.
• Which sequence correctly matches the angina types? stable angina is triggered by activity; unstable angina may show transient ST changes; prinzmetal/variant angina is due to vasospasm.
• A 62-year-old patient presents with a unilateral pupil size difference. Which diagnostic test is most likely to identify the cause?
• Bennett fracture is an oblique fracture of which bone near the carpometacarpal joint?
• What is described as the treatment for splenic rupture in the material?
• What is the most common organism causing septic shock?
• What is a common, easily correctable cause of prerenal azotemia?
• Which of the following is listed among home medications after ACS for cardiovascular risk reduction?
• Where is needle decompression performed for a tension pneumothorax?
• Which is an appropriate initial management for mild Acute Mountain Sickness?
• A blowing, musical murmur along the left sternal border is most consistent with which valve lesion?
• A patient presents with spastic paralysis on the right, loss of proprioception and vibration on the right, and loss of pain and temperature on the left after spinal trauma. Dx?
• Which clinical finding is characteristic of Kawasaki disease?
• Which should NEVER be used in the treatment of cocaine-associated chest pain?
• What is pathognomonic for a lightning strike injury?
• Which physical examination finding is commonly associated with dilated cardiomyopathy?
• In a patient with hypo- or hypercalcemia, what other lab must be ordered and why?
• Which antihypertensive is noted as suitable for use in pregnancy?
• Bullous pemphigoid is best described as which of the following?
• What is the imaging modality of choice when orbital cellulitis is suspected?
• An HIV-positive patient with chest discomfort, a pericardial friction rub, diffuse ST elevations, and normal troponin levels most likely has which diagnosis?
• Honey-colored crusts are characteristic of impetigo most commonly caused by which organism?
• In men, chlamydia most commonly presents as which condition?
• What is the recommended treatment for unstable supraventricular tachycardia?
• A midsystolic click heard best at the apex indicates which condition?
• Which step is the first in the management during the golden hour?
• In Class 4 hypovolemic shock, estimated blood loss is?
• In a child with back pain, which condition is specifically listed as a concern in the provided material?
• Which drug is a thrombolytic agent used to dissolve clots in an acute myocardial infarction patient?
• Systemic corticosteroids can have what negative effect on the eye?
• In the FAST exam, the Morison pouch corresponds to which region?
• Laryngotracheal foreign body aspiration presents with which signs?
• Mycoplasma pneumoniae most commonly affects which age group?
• Which medication is commonly used to treat CMV retinitis?
• A scuba diver ascends and develops mottled skin and arthritis in the shoulder and knee that is not worsened by movement. What is the diagnosis and initial treatment?
• Which drug class places a person at high risk for Achilles tendon injury?
• In pit viper envenomation, what coagulation abnormality may be observed?
• Which statement is true about management of marine puncture wounds?
• Treatment of torsades de pointes in a patient on procainamide is which of the following?
• A patient with normal peripheral pulses, edema, and medial leg ulcers most likely has which condition?
• Infectious presentation with posterior pharyngeal ulcers and vesicles is most suggestive of which virus?
• Pathologically, dilation of air spaces distal to the terminal bronchiole with destruction of the interalveolar septa describes which condition?
• A 43-year-old male presents with eye pain after exposure to fertilizer and lime. Which is the most appropriate initial step in managing this patient's symptoms?
• Which type of shoulder dislocation is most common?
• In atrial flutter, the typical EKG pattern seen in leads II, III, and aVF is described as:
• Which long bone is the strongest in the body?
• Which of the following is a step in the initial treatment of hyperkalemia?
• A disk herniation compressing the L5 nerve root may present with weakness of which muscle?
• Basal cell carcinoma is best described as which lesion?
• Which conditions need to be monitored in a person who sustains electrical injury?
• A 16-year-old male soccer player complains of right-foot pain that worsens with weight bearing, especially when planting to kick the ball. Which bone is most commonly affected by a stress fracture in this scenario?
• An elderly patient with cancer presents with back pain, confusion, and constipation. What electrolyte abnormality is most likely?
• Which of the following is a listed cause of hypercalcemia?
• In the initial assessment of blunt abdominal trauma in a hemodynamically unstable patient, which diagnostic test is most appropriate to perform first?
• Which fracture is characterized by axial loading as an injury mechanism?
• What is the test of choice for suspected aortic dissection?
• What is the typical prognosis of central cord syndrome?
• Which of the following is not part of the SLUDGE mnemonic?
• Which of the following is NOT a cause of hypernatremia?
• Which three medications are first-line therapy for hepatitis B?
• In the NYHA functional classification, which class corresponds to no limitation of activity with ordinary activity?
• Why must a posterior hip dislocation be reduced promptly (within about 6 hours)?
• Lisfranc fractures involve which joints?
• Which radiographic views are necessary for patellar fracture evaluation?
• In atrial flutter, which treatment is pursued if there are no contraindications?
• What are the three main management strategies described for atrial fibrillation?
• Epiglottitis most commonly affects children in which age range?
• In a cat or dog bite, which organism is most commonly involved?
• Hypotension is defined as a systolic blood pressure less than what value, or a drop from baseline by more than 30 mmHg?
• Which preventive measure is commonly recommended in chemical skin burns after exposure?
• TEN and SJS typically evolve after exposure to certain drugs or infections. If less than 10% of body is affected, it is aka ____. If greater than 30% of the body is affected, it is aka ____.
• Which examination tests radial nerve function?
• What is the definitive treatment for cardiogenic shock?
• Which statement best describes a Maisonneuve fracture?
• After blunt chest trauma, a patient has dullness to percussion and elevation of the right hemidiaphragm with diminished breath sounds. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
• Dilation of large conducting airways due to congenital or acquired conditions is called what?
• Chancroid is most commonly caused by which organism?
• In anterior cord syndrome, which modalities are preserved?
• What is the recommended management for Galeazzi fracture?
• Main method for confirmation of arboviral infections?
• Which vasopressor is commonly used for hypotension in cardiogenic shock?
• Intermittent unilateral weakness in a patient raises suspicion for which diagnosis?
• Which of the following conditions can cause hypotonic hypervolemic hyponatremia?
• What is the most common complication of Amebiasis?
• Which statement correctly describes Type 4 pelvic fracture?
• Which diagnosis is most likely given immediate pinprick sensation after a spider bite with a target-shaped lesion at the bite site, muscle cramps, tachycardia, and nausea/vomiting?
• Kernig sign is elicited by what finding?
• Acute bacterial prostatitis is treated with antibiotics for how long?
• In otitis externa, the most common pathogen is Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Which topical regimen is traditionally used?
• What is the initial test used to assess heart failure?
• Which electrolyte imbalance commonly presents with N/V, weakness, headache, agitation, and possible seizures?
• Corneal abrasion is a superficial disruption of the corneal surface. Which treatment component should not be prescribed for home use due to impairment of healing?
• What is the nonoperative method to decompress a sigmoid volvulus after diagnosis?
• A 55-year-old man experiences sudden unilateral facial numbness and right hand numbness with mild word-finding difficulty. What is the most likely etiology?
• Which AV block is characterized by progressive PR interval lengthening until a P wave is dropped?
• What are the prehospital treatments for ACS?
• Rusty sputum pneumonia is most commonly caused by which organism?
• Hymenoptera refers to which insects?
• In a strain, which tissues are injured?
• Which of the following is a cause of hypovolemic shock?
• What is the PERC criteria used for?
• Purple, polygonal pruritic papules with Wickham striae describe which condition?
• Outdoor exposure followed by intense pruritus near waistbands with papules enlarging to nodules over a couple days. Diagnosis and initial management?
• Vesicles or ulcers on the pharynx suggest which etiologic category?
• Which diagnostic study would be most useful in establishing a diagnosis of infective endocarditis in a patient with S. aureus bacteremia?
• Which organism is most likely responsible for hemorrhagic bullae, vasculitis, and necrotizing fasciitis after a seawater puncture wound?
• In suspected esophageal rupture with subcutaneous emphysema and Hamman’s crunch, what is the diagnostic test of choice?
• Which nerve injuries are most commonly associated with forearm injuries?
• In areas with known chloroquine resistance, which malaria regimen is preferred?
• Which of the following is NOT among substances typically checked in known overdoses?
• Which of the following is a cardiac effect of malignant hypertension?
• In suspected Cerebral Arterial Gas Embolism after a scuba incident, which position is recommended for the patient?
• Trousseau sign indicates hypocalcemia.
• Which description corresponds to a fracture that is 50% displaced in the distal metaphysis?
• Which drug is used to treat Trypanosoma cruzi infection (Chagas disease)?
• What is the drug of choice for treating Necator americanus (hookworm) infection?
• Two of the most important risk factors in the development of stress gastritis are coagulopathy and respiratory failure. Which choice would indicate coagulopathy?
• What x-rays should you order for a shoulder dislocation?
• What anion gap value defines primary anion gap metabolic acidosis?
• In multifocal atrial tachycardia, which class of agents is considered the treatment of choice?
• A sexually active woman presents with lower abdominal pain, mucopurulent vaginal discharge, and cervicitis. The most likely diagnosis is:
• Which fracture is a fracture/dislocation of the atlas and axis caused by extreme hyperextension during abrupt deceleration?
• A positive troponin result is defined by what criterion?
• What nerve injury is associated with a sacral fracture?
• In less severe croup, which treatment approach is appropriate?
• In L5 radiculopathy, which muscle demonstrates motor weakness?
• Severe lower leg pain, inability to plantarflex, and inability to walk on toes after pushing off is most consistent with which injury?
• A sexually active man presents with dysuria and purulent penile discharge. What is the most likely diagnosis?
• The findings of unilateral periorbital edema (Romana sign), painful cutaneous edema (Chagoma), lymphadenopathy, and hepatosplenomegaly are most consistent with which disease?
• Which fluid should never be used to replace volume?
• Where is the most likely site of elbow bursitis in a patient with swelling near the elbow?
• What is the target door-to-balloon time for percutaneous coronary intervention in STEMI?
• Which Salter-Harris fracture types can generally be treated with closed reduction and cast immobilization?
• What are the top four causes of syncope in order?
• Which of the following is a treatment option for glaucoma mentioned in the material?
• What are the first-line and second-line medications for seizure after establishing airway and reversing metabolic causes?
• According to CDC guidelines, what induration size is considered positive in all other cases?
• In ciguatera seafood poisoning, which of the following is NOT a common source of the toxin?
• What is the most common cause of true hyperkalemia?
• Which condition presents with severe pain out of proportion, heaviness, brown skin discoloration, malodorous discharge, crepitus, and low-grade fever?
• Which anti-secretory agent is listed for diarrhea management in the material?
• Which GU injuries can be treated on an outpatient basis?
• Which antiviral medication is commonly used to treat genital herpes infections?
• Tetralogy of Fallot has which associated symptom?
• Febrile seizures in children are most commonly characterized by which of the following?
• Where should a patient with heat stroke be admitted for monitoring and treatment?
• Which disease presents with high fever then defervescence followed by a maculopapular rash and is associated with HHV-6?
• What is the most likely reason for a patient to have cardiogenic shock?
• If laboratory results suggest an electrolyte abnormality but the patient’s symptoms do not, what is the appropriate next step?
• An elderly patient with a hot, swollen knee aspirated; which bacterial organism is most likely septic arthritis?
• In a femoral neck fracture that is non-displaced, what would you expect regarding leg length?
• Which option describes a toxic reaction to Hymenoptera stings?
• Which combination can cause hypermagnesemia?
• What is Kussmaul sign?
• What are common fractures associated with shoulder dislocation?
• Which AV block results in atrial and ventricular rhythms that are independent of each other?
• Which of the following best describes the treatment for thyroid storm?
• What is the appropriate management for a septal hematoma once identified?
• Lice infested followed by high fever, severe headache, maculopapular rash starting in axillae.
• What is the antidote for benzodiazepine overdose?
• In hyperglycemic hyperosmolar state, what is the urine output goal during fluid therapy?
• Fresh water exposure, high fever, severe headache, myalgia, hepatitis, conjunctivitis without purulent discharge.
• Which fracture is the fracture of the anterolateral aspect of the distal tibia in adolescents before complete closure of the epiphysis?
• Inflammatory plaques and follicular pustules in the beard area are most consistent with which diagnosis?
• Which EKG finding is seen in pulmonary embolism?
• Stasis dermatitis is most commonly associated with which underlying condition?
• Which clinical feature indicates the need for surgical intervention in arterial insufficiency?
• Pain, swelling, tenderness, ecchymosis, and crepitus around the shoulder in an elderly patient after a fall most likely indicates which diagnosis?
• A cellulitis of the floor of the mouth and neck originating in the submandibular space, commonly from a dental infection, describes which condition?
• In bronchiolitis, auscultation commonly reveals what findings?
• An elderly patient with rectal fecal impaction presents with cramping and rectal pain; which is the initial therapy?
• Which symptom is associated with hypercalcemia?
• Which of the following is a first-line hepatitis B antiviral agent?
• What is the recommended initial management for Stevens-Johnson syndrome according to the material?
• Which fracture is an oblique fracture through the base of the radial styloid?
• Which combination is most suggestive of pulmonary embolism in the appropriate setting?
• Which valve lesion is typically associated with a murmur best heard at the base of the heart and radiating to the neck?
• In suspected acute epiglottitis, what is the initial treatment of choice?
• Which protozoan is a principal agent of traveler's diarrhea?
• A child pulled on the arm and now refuses to use the arm; what is the most likely injury?
• Which description best fits pericarditis pain?
• If a patient has bradycardia or severe COPD, which should be used instead of a beta-blocker?
• Which imaging study is considered the gold standard for aortic dissection but is the most invasive radiographic study?
• Which joint is the most commonly dislocated in the body?
• Which radiographic signs are classically described for pulmonary embolism on chest X-ray?
• Which of the following is recommended if a Gila Monster bite is still attached to the patient?
• Fresh water exposure with maculopapular dermatitis on the lower legs that itches, followed by fever, urticaria, headache, and eosinophilia. Which disease is most likely?
• Inflammatory cystic acne on the face of a young woman.
• What is the goal of immediate trauma care, often referred to as the golden hour?
• Which symptom is typical of pericarditis?
• A football tackle where the shoulder lands on another player's body most likely results in which injury?
• ST elevations in V1, V2 indicate which MI and artery?
• In the tamponade scenario, which intervention may be used but would not relieve the symptoms?
• In acute pericarditis, which electrocardiographic finding is most characteristic?
• ST elevations in V1, V2, V3 indicate which MI and artery?
• Which of the following is NOT a minor criterion in the Duke criteria for diagnosing infective endocarditis?
• Which fracture is a distal radius fracture with volar displacement, due to a fall on the back of the hand?
• Friction rub is most likely heard in which condition?
• Which of the following is listed as a treatment option for hypernatremia?
• What is the treatment for sporotrichosis?
• Which condition features pruritus, tightening of the skin, flaking and scaling, and low-grade fever?
• Stage 1 iron toxicity presents with which manifestation?
• Which regimen is recommended for Trichomoniasis treatment in a single dose?
• Patients with branch retinal artery occlusion and central retinal vein occlusion present with which classic physical exam finding?
• In a systemic Hymenoptera reaction, what is the first-line treatment?
• In a patient with a hyperglycemic hyperosmolar state who is undergoing vigorous rehydration and IV insulin, when should glucose be added to the IV fluids?
• How long does it take before Lyme disease can be transmitted from a tick to a person?
• The decrescendo–crescendo systolic murmur best heard at the base of the heart and radiating to the neck corresponds to which condition?
• A comminuted intra-articular fracture through the base of the first metacarpal (base of the thumb) is known as which fracture?
• Four factors for ____ potential are given the greatest weight: 1. depression or hopelessness 2. rational thinking loss 3. organized or serious attempt 4. stated future attempt
• Which of the following lists represents the complete classic pentad of Leishmaniasis?
• In a patient with ongoing blood loss, what is the recommended disposition?
• Which test is the most sensitive for ACL injuries?
• What is the most likely diagnosis in a patient with abrupt severe headache, vertigo, nystagmus, sensory loss, and facial weakness on one side?
• Which medication is the treatment of choice for symptomatic patients with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
• Which DSM-IV axis addresses psychosocial and environmental factors?
• Laryngitis is most commonly caused by which type of infectious agents?
• What is the most common condition associated with acute lung injury and ARDS?
• In a known drug overdose, clinicians commonly check serum levels of which three substances?
• Beck's triad for cardiac tamponade includes jugular venous distension, hypotension, and muffled heart sounds. Which finding is not part of the triad?
• A popping sensation in the knee followed by significant swelling after sprinting and stopping quickly is most consistent with which diagnosis?
• In a 68-year-old woman with dyspnea and a new systolic murmur, what is the most appropriate next diagnostic step?
• For synchronized cardioversion, what energy levels are used for PSVT and for atrial fibrillation or ventricular tachycardia?
• What is a recommended management for gastroenteritis according to the material?
• Which cardiac marker is reported as being most specific to heart muscle?
• Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to thrombolytic therapy?
• Pulsus paradoxus is most closely associated with which condition?
• Which treatment is the treatment of choice for salicylate overdose?
• A sprain involves injury to which connective tissues?
• Which drug is associated with torsades de pointes?
• What is the Parkland formula for fluid resuscitation in burn victims?
• In adrenal crisis, which treatment should be administered immediately?
• During a physical exam, palpation between the ischial tuberosity and the greater trochanter in a patient with leg radiation identifies which nerve?
• A bundle branch block may develop after acute myocardial infarction, pulmonary embolism, or aortic stenosis and is due to a conduction delay in the right or left bundle branches. Which finding describes this condition?
• What are the most reliable measures of dehydration?
• Which carpal bone is the most commonly fractured?
• Deficiency in factor VIII is associated with which bleeding disorder?
• Which test most reliably confirms the causative organism in suspected herpes simplex virus encephalitis presenting with meningitis features?
• For suspected spinal epidural abscess, which imaging modality is preferred for diagnosis?
• No nitroglycerin in which kind of MI?
• A patient has a fixed dilated pupil on the right, left-sided weakness after head trauma, and a biconvex lesion on CT. Diagnosis?
• Cranial Nerves: Which option lists a correct pairing?
• Which long bone is the most commonly fractured in the body?
• What is a recommended initial management step for hypothermia?
• Which CSF profile is most typical of viral meningitis?
• Which sign is used to assess median nerve function?
• What is the primary treatment for pregnancy-induced hypertension in the acute setting?
• Which IV fluid can be infused in the same line as blood components?
• A patient has lethargy, headache, and a hyperdense crescent-shaped lesion on CT scan. Diagnosis?
• Which hepatitis viruses are transmitted by fecal-oral routes?
• Which statement is NOT a component of a Maisonneuve fracture?
• In Class 4 hypovolemic shock, blood volume lost is?
• What is the most common radiologic finding in a tension pneumothorax?
• In a patient with atrial flutter and 2:1 AV conduction, which antiarrhythmic is contraindicated due to the risk of 1:1 AV conduction and potential hemodynamic collapse?
• Which maneuver assesses ulnar nerve function?