PaEasy Emergency Medicine Practice Exam

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• In Class 3 hypovolemic shock, blood volume lost is between which percent?
• Which is the most common form of cardiomyopathy?
• What is the most reliable test to diagnose carbon monoxide poisoning?
• Which sequence correctly matches the angina types? stable angina is triggered by activity; unstable angina may show transient ST changes; prinzmetal/variant angina is due to vasospasm.
• What is the recommended acute treatment for a narrow complex supraventricular tachycardia?
• Eating food from a street vendor with dry cough, fever, weakness, and malnutrition. Which helminth infection is likely?
• ST elevations in V1, V2 indicate which MI and artery?
• What is the most common cause of death after a lightning strike?
• Which frostbite degree is characterized by freezing deep to muscle, tendon, and bone?
• Physostigmine is used with caution in anticholinergic toxicity because of risks including hypersalivation, AV block, seizures. Which drug's adverse effects limit its use?
• Mitral stenosis is best heard when the patient is in which position?
• tPA should be considered in ischemic stroke within how many hours of symptom onset?
• What is the most common radiologic finding in a tension pneumothorax?
• What is the most common form of infective endocarditis?
• Which topical treatment is used for scabies from the neck down?
• Friction rub is most likely heard in which condition?
• Which statement correctly identifies factors that shift potassium into cells?
• In suspected esophageal rupture with subcutaneous emphysema and Hamman’s crunch, what is the diagnostic test of choice?
• In pit viper envenomation, what coagulation abnormality may be observed?
• In a patient with ongoing blood loss, what is the recommended disposition?
• In an elderly patient on chronic steroids presenting with a subacute meningitis picture (headache, neck stiffness, photophobia) but afebrile, which diagnosis is most likely?
• Which statement best differentiates von Willebrand disease Type 1, Type 2, and Type 3?
• A 55-year-old woman with hypertension and two-vessel coronary artery bypass graft presents with increasing dyspnea and palpitations. EKG shows atrial flutter with 2:1 AV block and echocardiogram shows normal LV function. Which therapy is most appropriate?
• A 66-year-old woman with nephrotic syndrome on prednisone presents with cough and dyspnea. Which diagnosis is highly suspected due to the hypercoagulable state associated with nephrotic syndrome?
• Recent travel with high fever, headache, N/V, myalgia followed by a rash.
• What is the normal arterial range for PaCO2?
• Which of the following is an ADP receptor blocker that inhibits platelet aggregation?
• In carbon monoxide poisoning, initial management includes?
• Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome management includes:
• Heat tetany is best managed by which initial step?
• Which is a common cause of neurogenic shock?
• What is the primary management step in disseminated intravascular coagulation?
• Main method for confirmation of arboviral infections?
• A 15 year-old male with URI is now presenting with bilateral hilar infiltrates on chest X-ray, normal WBC, and elevated cold agglutinin titer. Most likely diagnosis?
• Febrile seizures in children are most commonly characterized by which of the following?
• Fracture along the length of the radius with injury at the distal radioulnar joint is known as which fracture?
• In patients with NSTEMI and elevated troponins, which initial therapy is recommended before coronary catheterization?
• In diabetic ketoacidosis, which pattern of breathing is characteristic?
• In Guillain-Barré, what is the typical direction of weakness on the body?
• Which burn depth is characterized by pink blisters and involves the epidermis and upper dermis?
• Which antivirals shorten the course of influenza A or B?
• Which Hymenoptera reaction presents as a systemic anaphylactic reaction?
• A teenage girl presents with polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, and a high plasma glucose with metabolic acidosis. The most likely diagnosis is which of the following?
• A joint aspirate shows yellow and cloudy fluid with 200–50,000 WBCs and more than 50% PMNs. This fluid is classified as:
• Which combination of medications is commonly used to treat alcohol withdrawal in the emergency department?
• What imaging study is the imaging study of choice for suspected kidney stones?
• What is the imaging modality of choice when orbital cellulitis is suspected?
• Which drug is associated with torsades de pointes?
• What is the historical common name for injury to the ulnar collateral ligament of the thumb at the base of the first metacarpophalangeal joint due to forced abduction?
• Osler nodes and Janeway lesions are clinical clues to which condition?
• Eating undercooked pork, seizures, headaches, mental status change, hydrocephalus.
• Which drug is used to treat Amebiasis (Entamoeba histolytica)?
• Heat syncope is primarily caused by which combination of factors?
• Which anti-secretory agent is listed for diarrhea management in the material?
• Which of the following is a biomechanical factor contributing to patellofemoral syndrome?
• Which fracture type is caused by repetitive stress and may not be seen on initial radiographs?
• Basal cell carcinoma is most commonly located on which facial feature?
• Which statement best describes the clinical features of thyroid storm?
• Which test is essential to evaluating hemolytic anemia?
• What syndrome features quadriparesis with more involvement of upper extremities and loss of pain and temperature sensation more in the upper extremities?
• Which conditions need to be monitored in a person who sustains electrical injury?
• Stage 1 hypertension is defined as greater than which blood pressure?
• Which statement best describes hepatitis B treatment duration if the response is favorable?
• In dysfunctional uterine bleeding, what is the gold standard method to determine whether ovulation has occurred?
• Which disease presents with an erythematous plaque at the tick bite site and painful regional lymphadenopathy (ulceroglandular form)?
• In patients with chest pain, a history of dyspnea is associated with what relative increase in mortality?
• A 21-year-old female with a cast on her arm develops extreme pain. Permanent muscle damage from compartment syndrome begins after how many hours of ischemia?
• What is the most commonly indicated test for signs of foodborne illness (i.e., diarrhea)?
• What is an appropriate first-line antibiotic treatment for gonorrhea?
• Which medication, among the following, is used in heart failure to increase cardiac contractility?
• What is the hallmark sign of heat stroke?
• Recent travel with alternating constipation and diarrhea, colitis, abdominal pain, fever, weight loss. Which disease is likely?
• In suspected alcoholic ketoacidosis, what is the critical initial management step before giving dextrose?
• In a high ankle sprain, which ligament is injured?
• Which of the following is not part of the SLUDGE mnemonic?
• Which bacterium is typically detected by rapid strep testing in pharyngitis?
• Which Salter-Harris type is characterized by injury to the growth plate with no metaphyseal or epiphyseal fracture?
• A chest X-ray showing a water bottle-shaped heart is most characteristic of which condition?
• A 64-year-old patient with recurrent syncope and a completely unremarkable cardiac workup. Which diagnosis should be considered as a likely cause?
• What percentage of volume loss causes hypovolemic shock?
• Which burn depth is described as pink hemorrhagic markings that involve the epidermis and dermis, are moist and painful?
• Which laboratory finding most strongly suggests a cholestatic process?
• Tx for mild hemophilia?
• What echocardiographic finding is described in pericarditis?
• Which drug is used to treat Trypanosoma cruzi infection (Chagas disease)?
• In a patient older than 50 with back pain, which condition is a high‑priority life-threatening concern?
• What is the initial management step for an adolescent presenting with status epilepticus?
• For stable patients with suspected traumatic aortic rupture, which imaging modality is commonly used for evaluation?
• In otitis externa, the most common pathogen is Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Which topical regimen is traditionally used?
• In unstable hypokalemia, what is the recommended route for replacement?
• What finding is commonly observed in malaria infection?
• For acute sinusitis, antibiotics should not be started until at least how many days have passed since onset?
• What potassium level defines hypokalemia?
• Which regimen is recommended for prosthetic valve endocarditis?
• Which troponin subtype is typically measured in suspected MI?
• A shortened, deformed, painful leg after a motor vehicle accident most likely indicates which injury?
• Which sign is commonly observed in shock?
• Back pain that worsens with walking and improves with rest is most consistent with which condition?
• In diving, the most common form of barotrauma occurs during which phase?
• Which antiviral medication is commonly used to treat genital herpes infections?
• In Class 3 hypovolemic shock, estimated blood loss is between which value?
• A painless lump on the dorsum of the wrist that recurs is most consistent with which diagnosis?
• Which maneuver assesses ulnar nerve function?
• In Class 4 hypovolemic shock, urine output is?
• What are the treatments for bradyarrhythmias?
• Which pathogen causes malaria?
• Which urinalysis finding is typical of glomerulonephritis?
• What is the most common cause of anemia?
• What is the typical imaging sequence used in diagnosing pulmonary embolism, in order from initial to final confirmation?
• The Drop Arm Test indicates which condition?
• Which combination best describes the typical presentation of acute pericarditis?
• Which therapy is the cornerstone of treatment for myxedema coma?
• Guillain-Barre syndrome is most likely due to what type of mechanism?
• In a patient with hypo- or hypercalcemia, what other lab must be ordered and why?
• Which of the following is NOT among substances typically checked in known overdoses?
• C6 radiculopathy typically presents with weakness in which muscle groups?
• For a child under 1 year with airway obstruction due to a foreign body, which maneuver is recommended first?
• In Class 3 hypovolemic shock, the respiratory rate is?
• Partial flexion at the PIP joint with extension at the DIP joint is characteristic of which finger deformity?
• Which of the following is a cause of decreased platelet production?
• In an elderly man with syncope and a systolic murmur consistent with aortic stenosis, which test is most appropriate next?
• What are the characteristics of 4th degree frostbite?
• Which laboratory finding would indicate anemia?
• A slow onset of abdominal pain, fever, and nausea/vomiting after trauma is most consistent with injury to which hollow organ?
• Which treatment is recommended for flea bites?
• Which hepatitis viruses are transmitted by fecal-oral routes?
• An 80-year-old patient with abdominal pain and a plain film showing a coffee bean-shaped appearance; the most likely diagnosis is:
• Among imaging options for suspected aortic dissection, which is most commonly performed in the ED due to being less invasive?
• For von Willebrand disease Type 2 or Type 3, which product can be used?
• Which set of findings defines malignant hypertension in this material?
• Which sign is classically associated with cardiac tamponade?
• For otitis externa, which topical regimen is commonly used?
• Temporary loss of reflexes after trauma to the spine is diagnosed as what?
• A person recently swam and now has watery diarrhea, fever, cramping, and N/V. Which organism is most likely, and what is a treatment option?
• What is the most common first symptom of restrictive cardiomyopathy?
• What core temperature defines heat stroke?
• A patient on chronic corticosteroid therapy undergoing surgery is at risk of which acute crisis?
• ______ is enlargement or dysfunction of the right ventricle due to pulmonary hypertension.
• If laboratory results suggest an electrolyte abnormality but the patient’s symptoms do not, what is the appropriate next step?
• Which factors are associated with increased risk of death from a major burn?
• Zig-zag lines of lesions with hemorrhagic puncta and intense itching are characteristic of which bite?
• Which natriuretic peptide is released from the ventricles in response to increased wall tension?
• What is the term for a gout attack at the first metatarsophalangeal joint?
• In an asthmatic or COPD patient, what is the typical progression of CO2 and oxygen that indicates impending respiratory failure?
• Which statement about typhoid fever matches the described clinical picture?
• What is the best chance for long-term survival in aplastic anemia?
• Patients with anaphylaxis should first have a patent airway. What medications are involved in treatment?
• A patient presents with splenomegaly, fatigue, and LAD. Pt reveals she has had a sore throat for 2 weeks. What might we see on a blood smear?
• What describes the role of ursodeoxycholic acid in biliary cirrhosis?
• A football tackle where the shoulder lands on another player's body most likely results in which injury?
• Bullous pemphigoid is best described as which of the following?
• Seatbelt injury is most commonly associated with which fracture?
• An elderly patient with progressive dyspnea, edema, decreased preload and clear lungs with a loud S2 most likely has which condition?
• Which antibiotic option is listed for septic shock management?
• In a ruptured ovarian cyst with suspected internal bleeding, which finding would indicate the need for emergent gynecologic surgery?
• Pharyngitis with pharyngeal exudates suggests which etiologic category?
• Which antibiotic is the first-line treatment for Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?
• Which of the following is a step in the initial treatment of hyperkalemia?
• Erythematous pharynx, enlarged tonsils, and yellow-white exudate suggest infection with which organism?
• Which DI type reacts to a water deprivation test?
• Two of the most important risk factors in the development of stress gastritis are coagulopathy and respiratory failure. Which choice would indicate coagulopathy?
• Flu-like symptoms progressing quickly to mediastinal and hilar edema and respiratory failure describe which infection?
• Which mechanism is commonly associated with posterior cruciate ligament injuries?
• Which combination is most suggestive of pulmonary embolism in the appropriate setting?
• Wernicke's area is primarily associated with language comprehension and is located in which lobe?
• Hypernatremia is defined as serum sodium above what level?
• Which type of chemical burn is described as coagulation necrosis with eschar after a chemical spill on the arm?
• Which of the following is NOT a typical myocardial infarction presentation feature?
• Which of the following is listed as a treatment option for hypernatremia?
• Which option describes a toxic reaction to Hymenoptera stings?
• In atrial flutter, which treatment is pursued if there are no contraindications?
• Which of the following is an intrinsic cause of hemolysis?
• Which therapy is included in the management of Cerebral Arterial Gas Embolism?
• Pyelonephritis presenting with fever and costovertebral angle tenderness is commonly treated with which regimen for 2 weeks?
• In a patient with chest pain where MI is ruled out, which history clue might suggest GI-induced chest pain?
• What is a standard initial pharmacologic approach to treating congestive heart failure?
• What is the initial management step for a confirmed lunate dislocation?
• What is the most likely diagnosis in a patient with abrupt severe headache, vertigo, nystagmus, sensory loss, and facial weakness on one side?
• An inflammation of the optic nerve presenting with acute vision loss and reduced color vision, with a swollen optic disc. The most likely diagnosis is:
• Posterior epistaxis is harder to manage because it originates from which plexus?
• Oxygen supplementation should be considered when oxygen saturation falls below what level?
• What constitutes the diagnostic criteria for Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome (SIRS)?
• A patient presents to the ER after pituitary surgery with polyuria and polydipsia; what is the diagnosis?
• A 54-year-old man presents with crampy abdominal pain and vomiting; not passed gas or stool for 10 hours. Abdomen distends; cecal distension to 12 cm. What is the most appropriate definitive management?
• In trauma, the FAST exam has replaced which technique for evaluating hemodynamically unstable patients?
• Which statement describes Type 1 von Willebrand disease?
• Jefferson fracture refers to fracture of which vertebra?
• Acute _____ failure is defined by an increased creatinine x3 and a decrease in GFR by >75% or urine output <0.3 mL/kg/h for 24 hours or anuria for 12 hours.
• In the described acute pericarditis case, which cardiac biomarker is more likely to be elevated?
• With knee ligamentous injuries -- which ligament is not usually treated with surgery?
• Painful grouped vesicles on an erythematous base.
• What is the initial test used to assess heart failure?
• What is the initial management for a tibial fracture?
• What is the most common clinical finding on vital signs in cardiogenic shock?
• A popping sensation in the knee followed by significant swelling after sprinting and stopping quickly is most consistent with which diagnosis?
• Trousseau sign indicates hypocalcemia.
• Clear, tense vesicles and bullae on head, trunk and mucous membranes. Bullae rupture in 2-3 days producing painful denuded areas.
• What is the most reliable sign of compartment syndrome?
• Which combination of steps is recommended for mild thermal burns?
• Which viral exanthem presents with Koplik's spots, cough, coryza, conjunctivitis, and a macular rash that begins at the head and progresses downward?
• In men, chlamydia most commonly presents as which condition?
• Corneal abrasion is a superficial disruption of the corneal surface. Which treatment component should not be prescribed for home use due to impairment of healing?
• In Toxic Shock Syndrome management, which step helps remove potential sources?
• What is described as the treatment for splenic rupture in the material?
• Hypocalcemia treatment includes which combination?
• Which nerve is tested by saying 'ahh'?
• In a 68-year-old woman with dyspnea and a new systolic murmur, what is the most appropriate next diagnostic step?
• What is the recommended timeframe for gastric decontamination by emesis or lavage after ingestion?
• What is the net acid-base disturbance typically seen in salicylate overdose?
• What is the Parkland formula for fluid resuscitation in burn victims?
• Which group is at the highest risk for nonexertional heat stroke?
• A delirious 8-year-old with influenza and noninflammatory CSF, liver enlargement, and vomiting—what is the most likely diagnosis?
• Hypercalcemia commonly presents on ECG with which change?
• Orchitis is an inflammation of the testes often due to which virus?
• Which medication inhibits aqueous humor production as part of reducing intraocular pressure in acute angle-closure glaucoma?
• A 66-year-old woman presents with abdominal pain and distension. Imaging shows distended bowel loops with haustral markings. Which etiology is most likely the cause of this large bowel obstruction?
• An indirect inguinal hernia is explained by which description?
• In blowout fracture radiographs, which sign reflects bone fragments in the sinus?
• Which intravenous fluid is recommended in alcoholic ketoacidosis?
• Which disease features lesions that have a depression in the center and are all at the same stage, spreading from the face/arms to trunk/legs?
• Which surgical option is used for treating arterial insufficiency?
• How is vaginal candidiasis diagnosed?
• Which patients typically experience atypical chest pain with myocardial infarction?
• Which of the following is NOT a component of Virchow's Triad?
• Which of the following is NOT part of the classic pentad of Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura?
• Which electrolyte disturbance presents with polydipsia, irritability, tremulousness, ataxia, and lethargy?
• Pain followed by erythematous papules in a unilateral dermatomal distribution that turns to vesicles and crusted.
• What is the recommended management for Galeazzi fracture?
• A 56-year-old male presents with edema, hypoalbuminemia, heavy proteinuria, and lipiduria with a normal GFR. What is the most likely diagnosis?
• Which treatment is the treatment of choice for salicylate overdose?
• A 40-year-old female with fatigue, widespread muscle tenderness, and sleep disturbance; what is the most likely diagnosis?
• Rhinorrhea in pharyngitis suggests which etiologic category?
• Which of the following is a common CNS complication of infective endocarditis?
• In suspected ischemic stroke, which test is most useful to determine the arterial source of the thrombus?
• A patient presents with hypotension, warm dry skin, and bradycardia after a spinal injury. What is the most likely diagnosis?
• Which method is most reliable for confirming endotracheal tube placement at the time of intubation?
• Stanford type A dissection involves which part of the aorta and is typically treated surgically?
• Which statement best describes a Maisonneuve fracture?
• Which electrolyte disturbance presents with absent deep tendon reflexes and hypotension in severe cases?
• A patient with sudden tearing chest pain radiating to the back and unequal arm blood pressures is most concerning for which condition?
• For asymptomatic hypocalcemia, what is the recommended treatment?
• Which of the following is a hypercoagulable state associated with increased risk of DVT?
• What acid-base disturbance is characteristic of diabetic ketoacidosis?
• Blepharitis is inflammation of which anatomic structure?
• Which nerve is primarily responsible for motor function to the iliopsoas and for L1-L3 dermatomes?
• Greenstick fractures occur almost exclusively in which population?
• Diastolic dysfunction means a problem with which cardiac property?
• What is the 3:1 rule for fluid resuscitation in hemorrhage?
• Which combination of signs characterizes a tension pneumothorax?
• During treatment of diabetic ketoacidosis or hyperglycemic hyperosmolar state, which electrolyte must be monitored and possibly supplemented to prevent hypokalemia?
• Which description corresponds to a fracture that is 50% displaced in the distal metaphysis?
• In central retinal artery occlusion, which medication may help to reduce intraocular pressure?
• What is the sublingual nitroglycerin dose used in MONA?
• Which condition presents with asymmetric swelling of peritonsillar tissue and uvular deviation away from the affected side, with symptoms such as sore throat, drooling, 'hot potato' voice, and trismus?
• What is the most likely reason for a patient to have cardiogenic shock?
• In adrenal crisis, which laboratory abnormalities are typically seen?
• Which finding would confirm a diaphragmatic injury following trauma?
• In a patient with suspected acute anemia presenting with instability, what is the initial management step?
• Austin-Flint murmur is typically seen with which valve lesion?
• Which two medications are commonly used to treat alcohol withdrawal in the emergency department?
• Renal artery thrombosis is associated with a fracture at which vertebral level?
• In Toxic Shock Syndrome, what is the most important initial management step?
• What are the three most common causes of DIC?
• Which drug class places a person at high risk for Achilles tendon injury?
• C5 radiculopathy typically presents with weakness in which muscle groups?
• Intermittent unilateral weakness in a patient raises suspicion for which diagnosis?
• Which diagnostic study would be most useful in establishing a diagnosis of infective endocarditis in a patient with S. aureus bacteremia?
• Which ECG finding is associated with hypokalemia?
• Which symptom is typical of pericarditis?
• For an abscess with suspected MRSA, which antibiotic is an option for coverage?
• What is the most likely type of shoulder dislocation in a patient who has a traumatic event and cannot move the shoulder?
• Hip dislocations are often associated with which fracture?
• Heinz bodies indicate which deficiency or condition?
• Fresh water exposure with maculopapular dermatitis on the lower legs that itches, followed by fever, urticaria, headache, and eosinophilia. Which disease is most likely?
• In evaluating acid-base disorders, what is the first step?
• Which fracture is a fracture/dislocation of the atlas and axis caused by extreme hyperextension during abrupt deceleration?
• Which distal radius fracture is defined by volar (palmar) angulation of the distal radius fragment?
• Acute bacterial prostatitis is treated with which antibiotic class?
• In a patient with tearing chest and back pain and a diastolic murmur, what is the expected finding on chest radiograph?
• Nerve injury most commonly associated with a humeral shaft fracture?
• Infant with tender skin, diffuse erythema, sand-paper skin followed by large bullae and sloughing; positive Nikolsky sign.
• Among risk factors for stress fractures in athletes, which factor is associated with osteopenia and increased fracture risk, particularly in female athletes?
• In frostbite management, which blister type is considered less favorable?
• What is the most common cause of acute adrenal insufficiency?
• Which biomarker is most sensitive for myocardial necrosis?
• Which rotator cuff muscle is most commonly injured?
• In a patient with myxedema coma, which action is essential in the initial management?
• In acute tricyclic antidepressant overdose, which intervention addresses sodium channel blockade and is commonly used as part of management?
• Which condition is commonly caused by immune-mediated destruction of platelets leading to isolated thrombocytopenia?
• Infective endocarditis is most commonly caused by which organisms?
• What is the most common arbovirus in returning travelers?
• Which antidote is used for opiate and heroin overdose?
• Which signs are associated with Eastern Coral Snake envenomation?
• Which splint is commonly used to immobilize a scaphoid fracture?
• Which of the following is NOT a minor criterion in the Duke criteria for diagnosing infective endocarditis?
• Which treatment is commonly prescribed for tinea capitis?
• In suspected glaucoma, intraocular pressure is typically above which value?
• Which finding best indicates an MCL or LCL tear?
• To evaluate suspected biliary cirrhosis, which initial set of tests is most appropriate to order?
• Hypertensive emergency with encephalopathy: which finding would you expect on examination?
• Which description best fits a local reaction to Hymenoptera stings?
• Barotrauma during ascent is due to expansion of gas in body cavities. Which of the following is the correct mechanism?
• Which two diagnostic tools are used to rule out an ectopic pregnancy?
• What is a positive Kehr sign indicative of?
• Which medication is used to inhibit peripheral conversion of T4 to T3 in thyroid storm?
• In addition to insulin and normal saline, which electrolyte is commonly infused in a type 2 diabetic arriving in a hyperglycemic, hyperosmolar, nonketotic state to prevent hypokalemia?
• In atrial flutter, the typical EKG pattern seen in leads II, III, and aVF is described as:
• If a patient has a cough on ACE inhibitors, which medication class should be used instead?
• Which long bone is the strongest in the body?
• In acute pericarditis, which of the following is a serious complication that requires careful monitoring to prevent progression to tamponade?
• For gonorrhea and chlamydia coinfection, which regimen is recommended?
• In correcting fluids and electrolytes, which should be addressed first?
• Which antidote is used for acute benzodiazepine overdose?
• Which treatment is recommended for respiratory alkalosis due to anxiety?
• Which of the following is part of the PRICE approach for sprains?
• How is anterior epistaxis managed according to the material?
• Which agent and combination is listed as the agent of choice for lowering BP in hypertensive encephalopathy, intracranial bleeding, and heart failure, with consideration for dissecting aneurysm?
• In pediatric head injury evaluation, skull radiographs have a limited role due to high false positives rates and low prevalence. Which statement best describes this limitation?
• In a triage scenario, an elderly woman who fainted with shortness of breath and a younger man who fainted without prodrome, what is the likely cause of each episode?
• Patchy areas of alopecia with broken off hairs and scales at the periphery.
• According to CDC guidelines, what induration size is considered positive in HIV-positive individuals or those with HIV risk factors?
• Which of the following describes the classic triad for spinal infection?
• An elderly patient with a hot, swollen knee aspirated; which bacterial organism is most likely septic arthritis?
• Elevated cold agglutinin titers are most characteristic of which infection?
• Flumazenil is used to reverse acute benzodiazepine overdose in patients who do not have risk of seizure. True or False?
• What is the most common vector of disease transmission?
• No nitroglycerin in which kind of MI?
• What is the most reliable clinical tool for confirming endotracheal intubation in an emergency?
• How is the anion gap calculated?
• Desmopressin can shorten bleeding time in bleeding disorders due to which conditions?
• In moderate or major thermal burns, which airway management step is recommended if there are signs of airway burn?
• In documentation of a 19-year-old with rhyming, nonsensical speech during an interview, which term best describes this behavior?
• In Class 2 hypovolemic shock, blood pressure is described as:
• Which facial location is most likely for a basal cell carcinoma described as pink pearly papule with surface telangiectasia and slow growth?
• Which spider bite is classically associated with a painless bite that can progress to a necrotic eschar?
• Ranson criteria are used to predict mortality in which condition?
• Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is most commonly due to hypertrophy of which structure, and which heart sound is commonly associated?
• Cardiac Marker: _____ is detectable within 1-2 hours after acute MI and has duration <1 day with low specificity.
• When should visual acuity and pH testing be performed after an ocular chemical splash?
• Liver disease bleeding management: which treatment is used when there is active bleeding or before surgery?
• Which is the first-line treatment for anaphylactic shock?
• In sexually active adolescents, which organism is a common cause of septic arthritis?
• How long should Plavix/Clopidogrel be used for bare metal stents?
• Which type of leg ulcer is typically punched-out with hair loss?
• Epiglottitis most commonly affects children in which age range?
• Which of the following is NOT a rotator cuff muscle?
• What EKG finding is pathognomonic for hypothermia?
• Tachycardia, hypotension, and acute abdominal tenderness after abdominal trauma indicate what kind of injury?
• In cardiac tamponade, which of the following is an emergent management step?
• Lateral neck radiography showing prevertebral soft-tissue swelling with forward displacement of the esophagus and trachea is most consistent with which condition?
• In a patient presenting with chest pain, which finding would most strongly support myocardial infarction?
• What is the major cause of high altitude syndromes?
• A 55-year-old woman with atrial flutter and rheumatic mitral stenosis presents with dyspnea. Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy to prevent embolic stroke?
• What is the target door-to-balloon time for percutaneous coronary intervention in STEMI?
• Which clinical feature indicates the need for surgical intervention in arterial insufficiency?
• A 3-year-old with abrupt onset focal wheezing localized to the right lower lobe; most likely diagnosis?
• What is the leading cause of blindness in HIV patients?
• Honey-colored crusts are characteristic of impetigo most commonly caused by which organism?
• Hypotension is defined as a systolic blood pressure less than what value, or a drop from baseline by more than 30 mmHg?
• In a blowout fracture, which sign indicates orbital fat herniation into the maxillary sinus on plain radiographs?
• The fern test detects crystallization of salts in the amniotic fluid. Which test is this describing?
• Which radiographic views should be obtained if a patellar fracture is suspected?
• Hemophilia A is treated with which clotting factor?
• Which ankle-brachial index (ABI) range corresponds to claudication?
• Which fracture is a distal radius fracture with dislocation of the distal radioulnar joint at the wrist?
• Which of the following is a nonanion gap metabolic acidosis cause?
• Which diagnosis is associated with vesiculopapular eruption over clothed areas in a hot environment?
• What is the most severe tick-borne disease in the US?
• What are the prehospital treatments for ACS?
• A scuba diver has hearing loss, tinnitus, vertigo, and a positive fistula test. What is the diagnosis and initial management?
• What is the most common injured organ in blunt abdominal trauma?
• Mastoiditis is a rare complication of otitis media. Typical treatment duration is:
• Which disease presents with high fever then defervescence followed by a maculopapular rash and is associated with HHV-6?
• Which EKG finding is most consistent with a pulmonary embolism?
• Which statement best reflects the initial management of an ACL injury in the emergency setting?
• In DKA, if serum potassium is less than 3.3 mEq/L, which action should be taken?
• Which laboratory finding is characteristic of nephrotic syndrome?
• What is the name of complete rupture of the extensor tendon at the distal phalanx causing DIP flexion?
• Bradycardia and hypotension following trauma to the spine indicate which condition?
• A 16-year-old male soccer player complains of right-foot pain that worsens with weight bearing, especially when planting to kick the ball. Which bone is most commonly affected by a stress fracture in this scenario?
• Fracture of the proximal ulna with anterior dislocation of the radial head is known as which fracture?
• What is the most common cause of pericarditis?
• Which disease is characterized by a strawberry tongue and a sandpaper-like rash following streptococcal pharyngitis?
• In dermatitis management, the primary treatment focus is to
• Troponin elevations are not reliable until after how many hours?
• Which spider has an antivenom that can be given for acute symptoms?
• What blood glucose level is typical for diabetic ketoacidosis?
• Which IV fluid is used for dehydration according to the protocol described?
• In a patient with back pain and progressive neurological deficits suggesting epidural compression, what is the initial management step?
• In a patient with a fracture of the orbital floor, which nerve is most likely affected, causing decreased sensation of the cheek?
• A 55-year-old man experiences sudden unilateral facial numbness and right hand numbness with mild word-finding difficulty. What is the most likely etiology?
• Which condition is a nonanion gap metabolic acidosis cause?
• Recent travel followed by localized inflammation at the site of a fly bite that evolves into a painless chancre with intermittent fevers, rash, and behavioral or neurologic changes. Which diagnosis best fits this presentation?
• Which antihypertensive is noted as suitable for use in pregnancy?
• A disk herniation compressing the L5 nerve root may present with weakness of which muscle?
• Which medication is commonly used to treat CMV retinitis?
• Beck's triad for cardiac tamponade includes jugular venous distension, hypotension, and muffled heart sounds. Which finding is not part of the triad?
• Which statement best describes Brown Recluse spider bite management?
• Which hematoma after a skull fracture presents with spinal fluid rhinorrhea and an initial unconsciousness followed by a lucid interval and later deterioration?
• Which of the following is a common complication of late hypothermia?
• In a patient with atrial flutter and 2:1 AV block, which diagnostic study is most appropriate next to evaluate for valvular disease?
• What is the standard treatment for syphilis?
• For suspected spinal epidural abscess, which imaging modality is preferred for diagnosis?
• Which statement correctly classifies hypothermia by core temperature?
• Which action is an appropriate initial step in treating hypothermia?
• Following trauma to the spine, there is complete paralysis in the legs with loss of temperature and pain sensation, but preserved proprioception and vibratory sense. Dx?
• What is the approximate mortality range for ARDS?
• What is the normal serum bicarbonate range?
• Which medication is commonly used to treat erythema multiforme?
• Which drug is a thrombolytic agent used to dissolve clots in an acute myocardial infarction patient?
• Which practice is NOT recommended in marine trauma wound care?
• Pulsus paradoxus is most commonly associated with which condition?
• Epidural hematoma on CT is typically described as which shape?
• Infection of the lacrimal sac is called what?
• Stage 2 hypertension is defined as greater than which blood pressure value?
• Which COPD phenotype is described as 'pink puffer'?
• An avulsion fracture at the base of the fifth metatarsal is commonly called which fracture?
• What is the door-to-needle time for fibrinolysis in acute myocardial infarction?
• Transudates occur when systemic factors that control formation and absorption of pleural fluid are altered.
• What is the initial management step for suspected HIT?
• Which fluid should never be used to replace volume?
• RMSF is caused by which organism?
• A patient with hip surgery presents with tachycardia, tachypnea, and hypoxia. What is the best test to diagnose suspected pulmonary embolism?
• In cardiac tamponade, which procedure provides immediate relief?
• What is the recommended reduction maneuver for a patellar dislocation?
• _____ is due to reduction in volume of the lumbar spinal canal, causing compression and paralysis, and presents with leg weakness and loss of urinary and anal sphincter control.
• Which feature is more typical of epididymitis than testicular torsion?
• Which GU injuries can be treated on an outpatient basis?
• Which of the following is a treatment for improving blood pressure in hypotension?
• Which tick-borne illness is associated with fever, photophobia, and a petechial rash after tick exposure in the western United States mountains?
• A sprain involves injury to which connective tissues?
• Which test is used to detect Helicobacter pylori infection?
• Beck's triad in pericardial tamponade includes which three findings?
• Ground glass appearance of the cornea after a chemical splash to the eye indicates which burn type?
• Which analgesic should be avoided for pain in splenic rupture according to the material?
• A skier sustains a fall and pain at the base of the thumb; which ligament at the 1st MCP is most likely injured?
• An 18-month-old infant with congenital heart disease is diagnosed with acute bronchiolitis secondary to respiratory syncytial virus. Which therapy should be initiated?
• Which of the following heart sounds is NOT typically associated with a myocardial infarction?
• Which description best fits pericarditis pain?
• What is the most commonly used anticoagulant therapy in the US?
• Dilation of large conducting airways due to congenital or acquired conditions is called what?
• In a child with hemophilia, which joint is most commonly affected by hemarthrosis?
• Which hepatitis B serology marker indicates current infection?
• A patient has lethargy, headache, and a hyperdense crescent-shaped lesion on CT scan. Diagnosis?
• What is pathognomonic for a lightning strike injury?
• Dicloxacillin prophylaxis for patients at high risk of endocarditis is indicated for which procedure?
• Which depth categories are used to describe burns?
• What is the treatment for symptomatic hypocalcemia?
• A scuba diver ascends and develops mottled skin and arthritis in the shoulder and knee that is not worsened by movement. What is the diagnosis and initial treatment?
• What is the main goal of therapy for fluid resuscitation in burn patients?
• In hyponatremia management when the patient is hypovolemic, which fluid is typically used for resuscitation?
• Bethesda inhibitor assay is used to measure what?
• According to the American Heart Association, the tPA window can be expanded up to how many hours?
• What is the primary treatment for pregnancy-induced hypertension in the acute setting?
• Which valvular heart disease is most commonly associated with syncope?
• Which mnemonic is used to remember the signs of arterial insufficiency?
• What imaging modality is used to diagnose splenic rupture in the material?
• Which regimen is recommended for infective endocarditis in patients who are intravenous drug users?
• Which fracture is an oblique fracture through the base of the radial styloid in the forearm?
• Which description of synovial fluid is most consistent with septic arthritis?
• In Class 4 hypovolemic shock, the pulse is greater than?
• What is the most common injury leading to septic shock?
• In a patient with a large pericardial effusion and tamponade physiology, which ECG finding is most characteristic?
• Rusty sputum pneumonia is most commonly caused by which organism?
• In hyperkalemia, which is used to stabilize the cardiac membrane?
• What are the characteristics of 2nd degree frostbite?
• Charcot-Leyden crystals are associated with which condition?
• Which is an appropriate initial management for mild Acute Mountain Sickness?
• Which symptom cluster is commonly associated with acute coronary syndrome?
• Chancroid is most commonly caused by which organism?
• In acute pericarditis, which electrocardiographic finding is most characteristic?
• Which virus most commonly causes bronchiolitis?
• What is the initial treatment for an acute episode of supraventricular tachycardia in a hemodynamically stable patient?
• Which valve lesion is typically associated with a murmur best heard at the base of the heart and radiating to the neck?
• What is the most common barotrauma among scuba divers during descent?
• Which age group is least likely to experience a dislocation or sprain when significant stress is placed on joints?
• Pain, swelling, tenderness, ecchymosis, and crepitus around the shoulder in an elderly patient after a fall most likely indicates which diagnosis?
• In boxer fracture management, which treatment is appropriate for angulation less than 40 degrees without extensor lag?
• Which pathogen is commonly acquired from eating undercooked poultry or contaminated natural water sources?
• Which electrolyte imbalance is seen with torsades de pointes?
• An elderly patient with a swollen knee and prior effusion has synovial fluid demonstrating calcium pyrophosphate crystals. What is the most likely diagnosis?
• Which carpal bone is the most commonly fractured?
• Active elbow extension is primarily produced by which muscle?
• Aortic stenosis is most likely to be the cause of syncope in which population?
• A 14-year-old boy presents with acute scrotal pain after gym class. Which diagnosis is most likely?
• In suspected traumatic thoracic aorta injury, which bedside imaging is indicated for unstable patients?
• Which condition presents with severe pain out of proportion, heaviness, brown skin discoloration, malodorous discharge, crepitus, and low-grade fever?
• Activated charcoal is not used for which type of toxins?
• In multifocal atrial tachycardia, which class of agents is considered the treatment of choice?
• Which is a recognized treatment for ciguatera poisoning?
• In acid-base assessment, a HCO3- + AG − 12 value greater than 30 indicates what?
• Which scenario best describes hypotonic hypovolemic hyponatremia?
• Abscess management after incision and drainage: which statement describes when antibiotics are necessary?
• What is the test of choice for suspected aortic dissection?
• A 14-year-old boy with acute scrotal pain; which diagnostic test is most helpful to confirm testicular torsion?
• Which therapy removes potassium from the body via the gastrointestinal tract?
• If CT is unavailable, which test can be used as an alternative for diagnosing aortic dissection?
• Kernig sign is elicited by what finding?
• Pulmonary embolism: which of the following is part of initial management?
• In a patient with acute retroviral syndrome, which laboratory test best confirms the diagnosis?
• In suspected acute epiglottitis, what is the initial treatment of choice?
• Which organism is shiga toxin–producing and associated with bloody diarrhea?
• Which finding is NOT part of Beck's triad in cardiac tamponade?
• Simple partial seizures are best described as seizures that involve which characteristic?
• Which of the following is an intubation complication?
• Which of the following is a relative contraindication to thrombolytic therapy?
• Which fracture is a Y-shaped three-part fracture of the thumb at the carpometacarpal joint?
• In macular degeneration, which form cannot be prevented?
• In Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever, where does the rash commonly begin?
• Reiter syndrome associated with chlamydial infection includes urethritis, conjunctivitis, and which manifestation?
• What is a characteristic diagnostic finding for Trichomonas vaginalis infection?
• In an elderly patient with postrenal azotemia, what is the most likely cause?
• Which physical examination finding is commonly associated with dilated cardiomyopathy?
• An elderly man with diabetes presents with dehydration and confusion after being found outdoors in cold weather. Which condition is most likely to explain his acute mental status changes?
• Which spinal cord syndrome features ipsilateral motor paralysis and contralateral loss of pain and temperature?
• After successful conversion from a narrow complex SVT, which medication may be used for rhythm control?
• A sexually active woman presents with lower abdominal pain, mucopurulent vaginal discharge, and cervicitis. The most likely diagnosis is:
• Mastitis in lactating women can be complicated by what, which would require incision and drainage?
• Which intravenous agent reduces intraocular pressure by decreasing vitreous or aqueous volume in acute angle-closure glaucoma?
• Which shoulder dislocation reduction technique is commonly associated with gentle traction and abduction?
• What symptom is vaginal purulent discharge caused by?
• Which of the following is not part of the five Hs?
• What is the maximum possible Glasgow Coma Scale score?
• Conjunctival congestion suggests which etiologic agent in pharyngitis?
• Exudates occur when which type of factors that regulate pleural fluid are altered?
• Which of the following is NOT a criterion of the PERC rule for ruling out pulmonary embolism?
• What is the hallmark metabolic finding in isopropyl alcohol ingestion?
• What will a Gram stain of a gonorrheal infection typically show?
• What is the treatment for sporotrichosis?
• A Hill-Sachs lesion is best described as which of the following?
• Endoscopic injection of which toxin is used in the treatment of achalasia?
• A joint aspirate shows yellow, cloudy fluid with more than 50,000 WBCs and more than 50% PMNs. The diagnosis is:
• A scuba diver ascends and experiences truncal constriction (a feeling of tight around the chest) and ascending paralysis. What is the diagnosis and initial treatment?
• An elderly alcoholic with dyspnea and edema; which is the most likely cause of high-output heart failure?
• Chvostek sign is described as which of the following?
• For a hemodynamically unstable symptomatic complete heart block, which is the most immediate management option?
• What is the nonoperative method to decompress a sigmoid volvulus after diagnosis?
• A distal tibia fracture in a 5-year-old with separation of the epiphysis and a small chip fracture of the metaphysis corresponds to which Salter-Harris type?
• ____ arrhythmia most frequently results from lower energy AC exposures whereas ____ is more common after exposure to higher energy DC.
• Which is the most serious systemic complication associated with Kawasaki disease?
• For more severe bronchiolitis, which therapy may be added?
• Which drug is used to treat early-stage African Trypanosomiasis (Sleeping Sickness)?
• In a cat or dog bite, which organism is most commonly involved?
• Tx for sickle cell crisis?
• A patient presents with left upper quadrant pain and imaging shows intraperitoneal blood with rebound tenderness. What is the suspected diagnosis?
• Tx for heparin-induced bleeding?
• For suspected testicular torsion, which imaging modality is the diagnostic imaging of choice to confirm the diagnosis?
• What is the recommended management for Monteggia fracture?
• Where is needle decompression performed for a tension pneumothorax?
• In Class 2 hypovolemic shock, estimated blood loss is between which values?
• Which statement about GU injury management is true?
• What blood pressure threshold excludes the use of tPA in ischemic stroke?
• In areas with known chloroquine resistance, which malaria regimen is preferred?
• Pathologically, dilation of air spaces distal to the terminal bronchiole with destruction of the interalveolar septa describes which condition?
• Which vaccine has dropped the incidence of epiglottitis?
• Which therapy is considered disease-modifying for biliary cirrhosis?
• Which protozoan is a principal agent of traveler's diarrhea?
• In suspected pelvic fracture after high-energy trauma, which assessment step is essential?
• Observation alone can be used as the primary management strategy in pediatric head injury when which condition is present?
• Which of the following is an appropriate treatment for lice infestation?
• Epiglottitis is most commonly seen in children between which ages?
• In a boxer fracture, what angulation threshold requires referral for reduction?
• Which criterion indicates the use of sodium bicarbonate therapy in metabolic acidosis?
• Hypertonic saline is indicated for severe hyponatremia when serum sodium falls below what threshold?
• What is a treatment option for severe hypermagnesemia?
• What causes pseudohyperkalemia?
• Which splint is commonly used to immobilize a Rolondos fracture?
• Shigellosis is treated with which antibiotic?
• Which of the following is a contraindication to placing a nasogastric tube?
• What are common fractures associated with shoulder dislocation?
• Complications associated with changes in environmental pressure and with breathing compressed gas are known as what?
• A patient with chronic kidney disease presents with bradycardia, flaccid paralysis, ileus, and a peaked T wave on ECG. Which lab abnormality is most likely?
• A middle-aged patient with a crescendo-decrescendo systolic murmur best heard at the right upper sternal border radiating to the carotids is most consistent with which diagnosis?
• A purulent skin lesion after a spider bite is most likely caused by which organism?
• The most common enzymopathy of red blood cells is which deficiency?
• What is the appropriate management for a septal hematoma once identified?
• Which class of medication should be avoided in the management of fecal impaction due to constipation?
• Which radiographic combination is considered standard for patellar fracture evaluation?
• In the functional classification of heart failure, which class is described as having no cardiac symptoms with ordinary activity?
• Which symptoms are commonly associated with cardiomyopathy?
• Hangman's fracture involves fracture of which vertebra?
• Which shoulder reduction technique uses traction plus counter-traction to reduce a dislocated shoulder?
• Which adjunct therapy is used in pediatric diabetic ketoacidosis to reduce the risk of cerebral edema?
• In the Duke criteria for infective endocarditis, which finding satisfies a major criterion?
• Ischemic strokes are not visible on noncontrast CT until at least how many hours after brain infarction?
• In counseling a rape survivor on next steps, which is most critical to improve prognosis?
• A 20-month-old with fever and a brief generalized seizure; which description best fits this event?
• Which symptom best describes High Altitude Cerebral Edema?
• Noninvasive management options for congestive heart failure include which of the following?
• Which medication directly inhibits glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptors on platelets to prevent aggregation?
• The classic triad of symptoms for a valvular disease is abbreviated ASH. Which three features are included?
• In a strain, which tissues are injured?
• A 24-year-old male has had two syncopal episodes in the last 3 years, both during exercise of the right arm. What is the likely cause?
• What are the top four causes of syncope in order?
• Which statement is true about meningitis signs such as Kernig and Brudzinski?
• What symptoms characterize a pulmonary embolism?
• In anterior shoulder dislocation, which associated injuries are commonly present?
• Which principle explains that increasing preload can increase the ejection fraction of the ventricle?
• Which statement about troponin testing is true?
• In a 2-year-old with fever and a brief generalized seizure lasting less than 15 minutes, which diagnosis is most likely?
• If a patient with deep vein thrombosis has active internal bleeding, uncontrolled hypertension, CNS tumor, recent trauma or surgery, or recurrent DVT despite anticoagulation, which alternative treatment should be considered?
• What is the most common condition associated with acute lung injury and ARDS?
• Which diagnosis is most likely given immediate pinprick sensation after a spider bite with a target-shaped lesion at the bite site, muscle cramps, tachycardia, and nausea/vomiting?
• Which medication is the treatment of choice for symptomatic patients with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
• Which test is the most sensitive for ACL injuries?
• Which condition is inflammatory cystic acne on the face of a young woman treated with prednisone and outpatient dermatology referral?
• Four factors for ____ potential are given the greatest weight: 1. depression or hopelessness 2. rational thinking loss 3. organized or serious attempt 4. stated future attempt
• Which finding is most consistent with a brown recluse spider bite?
• Which of the following is a common complication of tibial fractures?
• Cellulitis is infection of which tissue layer?
• What is the most common cause of hypocalcemia?
• Treatment for acetaminophen toxicity when the level is 150 mg/dL at 4 hours after ingestion includes which of the following?
• Which joint is the most commonly dislocated in the body?
• If CT scanning is not available for pediatric head injury, which imaging modality may be an acceptable alternative?
• For suspected infective endocarditis, what is a recommended initial diagnostic step?
• Which regimen is recommended for Trichomoniasis treatment in a single dose?
• In mushroom poisoning, which finding indicates a good prognosis?
• During a physical exam after a nasal bone fracture, which finding must you look for to prevent ischemic necrosis of the nasal septum?
• What is the most common identifiable cause of dilated cardiomyopathy?
• What serum sodium level defines hypernatremia?
• Which statement best describes initial management of metabolic acidosis?
• Which seizure type preserves consciousness?
• What is the mainstay of therapy for von Willebrand disease?
• Which of the following is a risk factor for central retinal artery occlusion?
• A circular plaque with scales and a raised border on the trunk describes which condition?
• Posterior epistaxis arises from the Woodruff plexus; which option lists the correct plexus?
• Auricular hematomas are at increased risk of developing which condition?
• Which components make up Virchow's Triad associated with deep vein thrombosis?
• An elderly woman with severe dehydration is treated in the ED. Which IV fluid is indicated initially?
• What is Kussmaul sign?
• Panic disorder is frequently encountered in the ED and the s/s mimic those of other illnesses. What tests should be done for the diagnosis of exclusion?
• Mononucleosis-like illness with exudative pharyngitis and palatal petechiae is most commonly due to infection with which virus?
• Which type of chemical burn is generally more destructive to tissue, acid or alkali?
• Which cranial nerve is responsible for facial sensation?
• Which radiographic finding helps differentiate large bowel obstruction from small bowel obstruction on plain abdominal radiographs?
• What anion gap value defines primary anion gap metabolic acidosis?
• What are the most common foreign bodies causing airway obstruction in children?
• Reperfusion should take place before how many hours from symptom onset?
• Which is a stress fracture of the metatarsal?
• Which primary survey step focuses on visualizing any hidden injuries by exposing the patient?
• A painless lump on the wrist that recurs is most consistent with which diagnosis?
• In tetanus-prone wounds, which situation warrants TIG in addition to vaccination?
• An early systolic opening click followed by a systolic ejection murmur radiating to the base is characteristic of which lesion?
• Activated charcoal is generally not effective for which toxin categories?
• Which statement best describes the imaging appearance of a greenstick fracture?
• Which physical exam findings are most indicative of myocardial infarction?
• In HIV patients, which virus is the most common cause of serious opportunistic viral disease?
• In a patient with atrial flutter and 2:1 AV conduction, which antiarrhythmic is contraindicated due to the risk of 1:1 AV conduction and potential hemodynamic collapse?
• Which topical antifungal is listed for the treatment of tinea pedis, manuum, cruris, and corporis?
• An elderly patient with rectal fecal impaction presents with cramping and rectal pain; which is the initial therapy?
• In acute chest syndrome, which combination of therapies is commonly used in initial management?
• If initial ultrasound for suspected cholecystitis is inconclusive, which imaging study can confirm the diagnosis?
• Chronic back pain is defined as pain lasting more than which duration?
• Initial management of suspected cholera focuses on what?
• Temporal lobe involvement on CT is most characteristic of infection with which virus?
• Back pain with a positive crossed straight leg test and diminished reflexes is most consistent with which diagnosis?
• Which combination of approximate systolic blood pressures correctly matches the presence of pulses at the radial, femoral, and carotid arteries?
• The 'Spilled teacup sign' on a lateral X-ray of the wrist indicates which dislocation?
• Which step is the first in the management during the golden hour?
• Which nerve injuries are most commonly associated with forearm injuries?
• Which statement about electrocardiogram findings in calcium disorders is true?
• A 24-year-old HIV-positive man presents with severe left chest pain that improves when sitting forward. Exam reveals a pericardial friction rub. Chest x-ray shows a water bottle–shaped cardiac silhouette. Which diagnostic study is most appropriate next step in management?
• Which of the following is a major criterion in the Duke criteria for diagnosing infective endocarditis?
• In lunate or perilunate dislocations, what complication is of primary concern due to neurovascular compromise?
• Which option is NOT a named incomplete spinal cord syndrome?
• Acute bronchitis is usually caused by viruses; which bacterial pathogens are commonly implicated?
• Bankart fracture refers to detachment of which structure?
• Which statement correctly describes Type 4 pelvic fracture?
• Hyponatremia is defined as a serum sodium concentration below which value?
• Laryngotracheal foreign body aspiration presents with which signs?
• Which medication is considered first-line therapy for schizophrenia in this material?
• TEN and SJS typically evolve after exposure to certain drugs or infections. If less than 10% of body is affected, it is aka ____. If greater than 30% of the body is affected, it is aka ____.
• In trauma during pregnancy, which interventions should be avoided unless OB/GYN consultation is obtained?
• For Streptococcal Toxic Shock Syndrome, which management step is recommended?
• In trauma during pregnancy, what position is recommended to avoid supine hypotension syndrome?
• What is the standard treatment for acute pericarditis?
• Which of the following is a first-line hepatitis B antiviral agent?
• Among structural causes of syncope, which is most common in the elderly population?
• Which of the following is a SIRS criterion related to temperature?
• Painless indurated genital ulcer on the genitals is most consistent with which diagnosis?
• Which medication may help to reduce intraocular pressure in central retinal artery occlusion?
• In pulmonary embolism, the EKG pattern S1Q3T3 may appear with or without which conduction abnormality?
• Vesicles or ulcers on the pharynx suggest which etiologic category?
• What type of patient is contraindicated for prostate exam by DRE?
• In a child with a minor closed head injury and brief loss of consciousness, which imaging modality is most appropriate for initial assessment?
• Which fracture is a fracture/dislocation of the thumb at the carpometacarpal joint?
• Hypocalcemia is associated with which ECG change?
• Stanford type B aortic dissection is primarily managed with what?
• Which of the following is a cause of hypocalcemia?
• In addition to MONA, which combination of medications is commonly used in the management of myocardial infarction?
• Acute inflammation of the lacrimal gland is called what?
• What is the hallmark of pit viper envenomation?
• In acute compartment syndrome of the leg, which compartment is most commonly involved?
• Which structures can sense pain in the brain?
• Hypercalcemia is treated with which of the following as initial therapy?
• A cellulitis of the floor of the mouth and neck originating in the submandibular space, commonly from a dental infection, describes which condition?
• Which laboratory finding would most directly indicate anemia?
• Which fracture is an intra-articular fracture with a displaced radial articular fragment?
• What nerve injury is associated with a femoral shaft or lateral tibial plateau fracture?
• What is the therapeutic INR for warfarin for most patients?
• Purple, polygonal pruritic papules with Wickham striae describe which condition?
• What x-rays should you order for a shoulder dislocation?
• Recent travel with fever, cough, abdominal pain, constipation, prostration, bradycardia followed by rose spots on trunk.
• Which laboratory finding may be seen in Ehrlichiosis?
• In cellulitis, which antibiotic is an appropriate first-line option when MRSA risk is present?
• In gout, which joint is most commonly involved in the initial attack?
• Electrocardiography in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy typically shows which finding?
• In a patient without active bleeding, prophylactic platelet transfusion is typically indicated when the platelet count falls below:
• Acute leukemia presents with which constellation of symptoms?
• Causative vector for West Nile Virus?
• Which sign is defined by pain on dorsiflexion of the foot and is classically used in evaluating deep vein thrombosis?
• Fresh water exposure, high fever, severe headache, myalgia, hepatitis, conjunctivitis without purulent discharge.
• Which medication can be given to reduce blood pressure so that tPA can be administered?
• Kussmaul sign is seen in which condition?
• Central Retinal Artery Occlusion presents with acute, painless, monocular vision loss and risk factors such as hypertension, atrial fibrillation, and atherosclerosis. Which condition is described?
• Pulsus paradoxus is most closely associated with which condition?
• Which statement correctly describes sprain grades?
• An older patient with unilateral temple tenderness and a tender temporal artery, with no focal neurological signs, is most likely diagnosed with which condition?
• Pain and tenderness over the patella with a joint effusion is most consistent with which diagnosis?
• Which is a common cause of metabolic alkalosis?
• What is the definition of hypothermia?
• Pulmonary ______ occurs when resistance to flow across the pulmonary vasculature increases.
• Which antibiotic combination is appropriate for necrotizing fasciitis?
• Acute back pain is defined as pain lasting less than how many weeks?
• Which heat illness is characterized by a core temperature greater than 41°C and is a medical emergency?
• What meds should a patient go home with after ACS?
• In Class 3 hypovolemic shock, mental status is described as?
• In epididymitis among men over 40, the usual pathogens are from which category?
• A patient who is intoxicated has mydriasis. Which substance could he have been using?
• The management of isopropyl alcohol ingestion is largely what?
• Flea bites, fever, painful and suppurative bubos in the groin.
• Severe lower leg pain, inability to plantarflex, and inability to walk on toes after pushing off is most consistent with which injury?
• Which treatment option is indicated for epiglottitis in an emergency setting?
• Hymenoptera refers to which insects?
• The rotator cuff consists of which four muscles?
• Which pair of organisms are most commonly implicated as etiologic agents for bacterial meningitis in young adults living in dormitories?
• Which type of hyponatremia is characterized by hyponatremia with no signs of dehydration or volume retention?
• Which of the following is a risk factor for pulmonary embolism?
• For Streptococcal Toxic Shock Syndrome, which IV antibiotic combination is recommended?
• Which condition is a serious complication of sexually transmitted infections with increased risk of infertility and ectopic pregnancy, presenting with lower abdominal tenderness, chandelier's sign, and purulent cervical discharge?
• Which medication increases aqueous humor outflow in acute angle-closure glaucoma?
• Which cardiac marker is reported as being most specific to heart muscle?
• Which antibiotic option is appropriate for outpatient management of a non-limb-threatening diabetic foot ulcer?
• Which EKG finding is seen in pulmonary embolism?
• Which statement correctly lists the axes of the DSM-IV as I, II, III, and IV?
• Which two cervical vertebrae account for the greatest amount of axial rotation?
• What measure may be helpful before using adenosine for paroxysmal SVT?
• Gonococcal urethritis typically presents with what symptom?
• Which agent is used to neutralize circulating tetanus toxin in generalized tetanus?
• Which is part of the initial management for suspected neurogenic shock?
• Chest pain reproducible with palpation is most consistent with which diagnosis?
• What is the classic triad of symptoms for pulmonary embolism?
• Why must a posterior hip dislocation be reduced promptly (within about 6 hours)?
• In a child with back pain, which condition is specifically listed as a concern in the provided material?
• Abrupt onset diarrhea with blood and mucous, fever, tenesmus, malaise. Dx and tx.
• What is the most common cause of acute bronchitis?
• In L5 radiculopathy, which muscle demonstrates motor weakness?
• Which is the most appropriate initial management for heat cramps?
• In suspected arterial occlusion of a peripheral limb, what is the initial management step?
• What is the recommended treatment for unstable supraventricular tachycardia?
• What test is diagnostic for Bordetella pertussis infection?
• In S1 radiculopathy, which reflex is decreased?
• Which finding is most characteristic of Prinzmetal (variant) angina?
• Which vascular territory is most likely affected in a stroke presenting with contralateral leg weakness greater than arm weakness and incontinence?
• In ocular chemical burns, what is the initial management step?
• Pain crisis in sickle cell disease is treated by what approach?
• In the management of an unstable ankle sprain, which course is recommended?
• A patient develops profuse watery diarrhea after shellfish consumption with dehydration. What is the most likely diagnosis and initial treatment?
• What is the most common viral cause of encephalitis in the United States?
• Which illness presents with abrupt onset of fever, chills, headache, myalgia, malaise, sore throat, and bilateral tender cervical lymph nodes?
• Which ABG pattern is associated with acute salicylate overdose?
• Stage 1 iron toxicity presents with which manifestation?
• In patients with life-threatening dysrhythmias causing syncope, what is the recommended treatment?
• Which nerve and artery are commonly affected in humerus fractures?
• Which factor is most useful in diagnosing dysbarism?
• Which murmur is pansystolic, blowing, high-pitched, and radiates to the left axilla?
• In a patient with cirrhosis presenting with massive hematemesis, the most likely source is which condition?
• The door-to-needle time for thrombolysis in STEMI is how many minutes?
• Nitroglycerin may provide relief in which conditions?
• For itching in biliary cirrhosis, which therapy is commonly used?
• A 36-year-old man with a pattern of disregard for others, impulsivity, and repeated legal problems is most consistent with which personality disorder?
• A Burst fracture involves compression of which vertebral columns?
• What is the gold standard imaging for diagnosing suspected kidney injury after trauma?
• What is the definition of hypocalcemia?
• What is the most common organism causing septic shock?
• Which muscle is not considered part of the rotator cuff?
• Optic disc swelling caused by increased intracranial pressure is known as:
• Outdoor exposure followed by intense pruritus near waistbands with papules enlarging to nodules over a couple days. Diagnosis and initial management?
• In a boxer fracture, which finding indicates referral for reduction in addition to angulation?
• Which factors aggravate symptoms in acute pericarditis?
• Which statement describes the diagnostic criteria for ARDS?
• Which procedure is commonly performed to evaluate and drain a pleural effusion?
• Which of the following is a hallmark laboratory finding in diabetic ketoacidosis?
• Which antidote is used for tricyclic antidepressant overdose?
• What is a typical physical examination finding in acute pericarditis?
• Which cardiac marker is the test of choice and rises 2-6 hours after myocardial infarction and remains elevated for 5-10 days?
• Which syndrome presents with greater weakness in the upper extremities after a cervical hyperextension?
• In the FAST exam, the Morison pouch corresponds to which region?
• For a diabetic foot ulcer that is limb- or life-threatening with fever, ischemic changes, and lymphangitis, which management step is indicated?
• Which pathogen is most commonly associated with foodborne disease requiring hospitalization and death?
• A 65-year-old recent alcoholic with dyspnea on exertion and orthopnea due to beriberi should be treated with which?
• A 16-year-old with knee abrasion; last DTaP booster was at age 4. Which tetanus prophylaxis plan is MOST appropriate?
• Which Rule of Nines component is correctly matched?
• Which term best describes anemia caused by premature destruction of red blood cells?
• Lisfranc fractures involve which joints?
• In a patient actively seizing, which is the first-line parenteral medication to administer?
• Multifocal atrial tachycardia is most commonly associated with which condition?
• Patients with branch retinal artery occlusion and central retinal vein occlusion present with which classic physical exam finding?
• Which CSF profile is most consistent with bacterial meningitis?
• Which electrocardiographic finding is most characteristic of acute pericarditis?
• Vasopressin and octreotide are used in the management of severe cases of which condition?
• A 17-year-old female distance runner has diffuse anterior knee pain that worsens when walking up or down stairs or squatting. There is no history of acute trauma and no knee effusion. What is the most likely diagnosis?
• Which Salter-Harris fracture types can generally be treated with closed reduction and cast immobilization?
• Infectious presentation with posterior pharyngeal ulcers and vesicles is most suggestive of which virus?
• A 16-year-old male with left orbital trauma has diplopia on extraocular movement testing, enophthalmos, and decreased sensation over the left cheek. Imaging shows an orbital fracture. What is the most likely fracture type?
• Which disease presents with 'slapped cheeks' and a lacy rash on the arms and legs?
• For vascular access in moderate to major burns, what is the recommended approach?
• Inflammatory cystic acne on the face of a young woman.
• Which radiographic views are necessary for patellar fracture evaluation?
• Which radiographic finding is typical of bronchiolitis on chest imaging?
• In severe hypothermia, which warming method is preferred for rapid rewarming?
• Which statement is NOT a component of a Maisonneuve fracture?
• Which infection is diagnosed by a saline wet prep showing motile, flagellated organisms?
• What is the antibiotic prophylaxis for open fractures?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the four syndromes of severe arbovirus infection?
• Acute otitis media is most commonly caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and Moraxella catarrhalis, with high-dose amoxicillin as the standard therapy. Which condition is this description most consistent with?
• Left-sided heart failure contributes to pleural effusions by increasing hydrostatic pressure, producing which type of effusion?
• A bundle branch block may develop after acute myocardial infarction, pulmonary embolism, or aortic stenosis and is due to a conduction delay in the right or left bundle branches. Which finding describes this condition?
• A comminuted intra-articular fracture through the base of the first metacarpal (base of the thumb) is known as which fracture?
• In a young patient presenting with stroke symptoms and possible recent neck trauma, which condition should be considered?
• Treatment for cysticercosis tapeworm.
• Which hematoma results from venous injury and has a slower onset after head trauma, with symptoms such as headache and confusion?
• How do you test motor and sensory function of the median nerve?
• Which presentation includes jaw stiffness and risus sardonicus with muscle rigidity and spasms?
• Which IV fluid can be infused in the same line as blood components?
• Which of the following is the most common skin cancer?
• What are the 5 levels of verbal response in the Glasgow Coma Scale?
• Restrictive pericarditis treatment includes diuretics and which intervention?
• A posterior hip dislocation typically presents with which limb position?
• Which statement best describes pain in osteoid osteoma?
• TIMI and GRACE scoring systems stratify risk in which condition?
• The recommended door-to-balloon time for PCI in STEMI is how many minutes?
• Pneumonia pathogens have characteristic radiographic patterns. Which pattern is associated with Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia in AIDS patients?
• What is the recommended initial management for Stevens-Johnson syndrome according to the material?
• Sensory testing for the radial nerve includes which area?
• Which disease is managed with supportive care only?
• How can some people survive a lightning strike?
• What is a recommended initial management step for hypothermia?
• What is the definitive treatment for cardiogenic shock?
• A patient presents with decreased leg pulses, pale skin, and cool, shiny skin. What is the most likely diagnosis?
• What proportion of trauma-related deaths are due to head trauma?
• A wedge fracture is best described as compression of which vertebral column portion?
• Which medication is recommended for pericardial inflammation syndrome?
• What is the name of the injury characterized by catastrophic brain swelling after a second concussion before prior symptoms have resolved?
• What EKG finding is commonly seen in dilated cardiomyopathy?
• In pneumonia empiric treatment, which category corresponds to CAP requiring inpatient treatment?
• Tx for frostbite?
• In hyperglycemic hyperosmolar state, what is the urine output goal during fluid therapy?
• Which ECG finding may be seen in pericardial tamponade, and which bedside imaging helps confirm the diagnosis?
• Which regimen is an appropriate treatment for erysipelas?
• Listeria monocytogenes meningitis is most common in which group?
• Among the listed causes of syncope, which is most closely associated with death?
• Pruritic macule on the fingers that ulcerates and forms multiple bloody vesicles followed by a painless black eschar. Which disease is this?
• A firm, painless vaginal ulcer is seen with which disease?
• What is the most common complaint in sickle cell patients?
• In aplastic anemia, transfusing red blood cells in small volumes over several hours can help prevent complications; giving units too rapidly can lead to which complication?
• Which Le Fort fracture is a pyramidal fracture through the central maxilla and hard palate?
• Which radiographic signs are classically described for pulmonary embolism on chest X-ray?
• What are the first-line and second-line medications for seizure after establishing airway and reversing metabolic causes?
• In epididymitis among men under 40, the usual pathogens are from which category?
• Which disease is described by cycles of fever and chills after recent travel, with splenomegaly and anemia?
• Which hepatitis can become chronic?
• Among HIV-associated neoplasms, which is most common?
• Which statement accurately describes the Rule of 9's for estimating burn size?
• Visual changes and ocular pain in periorbital versus orbital infections are more suggestive of which condition?
• Which symptoms are commonly associated with digoxin toxicity in heart failure patients?
• What are the two forms of diabetes insipidus?
• In a patient younger than 18 with back pain, which condition is specifically listed as a concern?
• What two meds should be given to all ACS patients that do not have contraindications?
• Which of the following are sulfonylureas?
• ST elevations in I, aVL, V4, V5, V6 indicate which MI and artery?
• Which nerve root is associated with plantar flexion weakness?
• Which AV block is defined by a prolonged PR interval?
• What imaging modality is described as the imaging gold standard for stroke evaluation?
• A sexually active man presents with dysuria and purulent penile discharge. What is the most likely diagnosis?
• Biot breathing is most commonly seen in which condition?
• What radiographic sign is commonly seen on AP and lateral neck radiographs in croup?
• A diffuse macular erythroderma rash is classically associated with which syndrome?
• Intense perianal itching in a child. Which infection is most likely?
• The fasciotomy should be performed within how many hours to prevent irreversible damage in compartment syndrome?
• Which organism is typically spread by the fecal-oral route?
• Which type of volvulus is most commonly treated with rectal tube insertion?
• New onset type 2 diabetes often presents with which condition?
• What is the definitive treatment for pyloric stenosis?
• Beta-blocker overdose commonly causes which effect on blood sugar?
• Restrictive cardiomyopathy is most often caused by which type of process?
• Laryngitis is most commonly caused by which type of infectious agents?
• Which of the following is NOT among the five T's?
• What is the term for a radial head subluxation in a young child following pulling on an arm?
• In pleural effusion evaluation, what does a lateral decubitus radiograph help demonstrate?
• An athlete presents with swelling of the external ear after blunt traumatic impact. Which is the most appropriate management?
• Which fracture is characterized by axial loading as an injury mechanism?
• Which symptom is more characteristic of scorpion envenomation than a black widow bite?
• If a patient has bradycardia or severe COPD, which should be used instead of a beta-blocker?
• In suspected Cerebral Arterial Gas Embolism after a scuba incident, which position is recommended for the patient?
• For synchronized cardioversion, what energy levels are used for PSVT and for atrial fibrillation or ventricular tachycardia?
• What is assessed in the Glasgow Coma Scale?
• Which statement about shock and its hemodynamic changes is true?
• A Rh-negative woman at 14 weeks gestation presents with vaginal bleeding and clots. What Rhogam dose is indicated?
• How are unruptured ovarian cysts smaller than 5 cm typically managed?
• Which pathogen is frequently associated with undercooked poultry or contaminated natural water sources?
• Which electrolyte levels should be monitored to avoid digoxin toxicity in a heart failure patient?
• In less severe croup, which treatment approach is appropriate?
• What is an appropriate initial management step for vasovagal syncope?
• Which population is at highest risk for Wernicke encephalopathy due to thiamine deficiency?
• Cardiac tamponade classically presents with which combination?
• Which organism is most commonly associated with infective endocarditis in intravenous drug users?
• Which condition is the leading cause of death in myocardial infarction?
• Which fracture is the fracture of the proximal third of the fibula with rupture of the distal tibiofibular syndesmosis?
• The most common intracranial aneurysm is a berry aneurysm located in which vascular territory?
• Which organism most commonly causes erysipelas?
• Among adults over 50 with back pain, which condition is described as a vascular emergency to consider?
• A patient presents with spaghetti and meatballs appearance on KOH preparation. What is the most likely diagnosis?
• Which bone fracture is most commonly associated with acute compartment syndrome?
• A 55-year-old woman with mitral stenosis presents with dyspnea and palpitations; which tachyarrhythmia is most likely on EKG?
• Hot water immersion is recommended for which marine injuries?
• A Colles fracture is best described as a distal radius fracture with which deformity?
• In the management of preeclampsia, which combination lists seizure prophylaxis and first-line antihypertensive?
• If hyponatremia is corrected too quickly, what neurologic complication can occur?
• For Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis, what is the initial management?
• Which electrocardiographic finding is associated with digoxin toxicity?
• In IV drug users with endocarditis, which valve is most commonly affected?
• In suspected anaphylaxis, what is the first priority in management?
• A 15-year-old boy collapses during a basketball game. What is the most likely etiology of sudden death in this adolescent?
• In Herpes Zoster, acyclovir should be given if immunocompromised or within 72 hours of onset.
• Which group is most likely to suffer mushroom poisoning?
• Which therapy lowers potassium by shifting it into cells?
• Which medication class is commonly used to reduce fluid overload in congestive heart failure?
• Which congenital condition is known to increase the risk for aortic dissection?
• For central diabetes insipidus, what is the first-line pharmacologic treatment?
• Which item is NOT included in the SAD PERSONS suicide risk assessment?
• A patient with normal peripheral pulses, edema, and medial leg ulcers most likely has which condition?
• Aspiration of a joint yields clear, transparent fluid with fewer than 200 WBCs and less than 25% PMNs. What is the most likely diagnosis?
• In a patient with myocardial infarction who also has heart failure, which therapy is commonly recommended?
• For a patient with prior myocardial infarction, which medications are listed as the drug of choice?
• Which fracture is an isolated ulna fracture?
• A patient presents with immediate pain and paresthesias after a sting, a positive tap test, tachycardia, nausea/vomiting, roving eye movements, muscle spasms, vision impairment, and dysphagia. Dx and treatment?
• In hypokalemia management, which is appropriate for a stable patient?
• What is the high-risk cutoff for the GRACE score in ACS risk stratification?
• Which radiographic signs on abdominal X-ray are associated with pancreatitis?
• What is the goal of immediate trauma care, often referred to as the golden hour?
• Late hypothermia symptom?
• What test confirms the diagnosis of biliary cirrhosis?
• Which should NEVER be used in the treatment of cocaine-associated chest pain?
• Which antidote reverses the effects of opioids?
• Bit by a snake with fang marks in the skin, pain, erythema, ecchymosis, edema extending from the bite, plus nausea/vomiting, perioral paresthesia, and lethargy. Which management step is indicated?
• Which drug is the drug of choice for acute hypertensive encephalopathy?
• A 1-year-old with easy bruising presents with swelling and warmth over the knee due to hemarthrosis. Which physical finding would you expect?
• Intra-articular distal radius fracture with dorsal displacement of the distal fragment and carpus subluxation is which fracture?
• Which muscle is most commonly involved in a rotator cuff tear?
• What is the typical prognosis of central cord syndrome?
• Which nerve controls tongue movement?
• Which injury is an UCL injury of the thumb metacarpophalangeal joint, with or without fracture?
• Which fracture is a distal radius fracture with volar displacement, due to a fall on the back of the hand?
• In the assessment of Circulation during the Primary Survey, which finding best fits the description provided in the material?
• Which lab value is most likely elevated in a patient with acute cholecystitis and jaundice?
• Which feature distinguishes necrotizing fasciitis from cellulitis?
• Which triad is associated with intracranial hypertension?
• Which medication is commonly used to acutely lower blood pressure in hypertensive emergencies?
• Where should a patient with heat stroke be admitted for monitoring and treatment?
• Which cancer is NOT typically a vertebral metastasis?
• Which heart valve is most commonly affected by infective endocarditis?
• In atrial flutter, which medication is useful for chronic atrial flutter heart rate management or for maintaining sinus rhythm after cardioversion?
• Which organism is most likely responsible for hemorrhagic bullae, vasculitis, and necrotizing fasciitis after a seawater puncture wound?
• Which condition is classically associated with simultaneous bleeding and thrombosis?
• Which of the following is an appropriate initial treatment for sunburn?
• What is the most common type of hip dislocation?
• Which diastolic murmur heard along the left sternal border is most consistent with aortic regurgitation?
• Which diagnosis best fits a patient with rest angina, transient ST elevations relieved by nitroglycerin, and normal coronary arteries on catheterization?
• Which of the following is NOT a cause of hypernatremia?
• Which of the following is a contraindication to tissue plasminogen activator (TPA) therapy?
• To confirm tinea infections such as tinea barbae, which diagnostic test is commonly used?
• Which antiviral is commonly used to treat influenza when started early?
• A blowing, musical murmur along the left sternal border is most consistent with which valve lesion?
• Which statement correctly describes Type 1 pelvic fracture?
• What are the adjunctive tx for fibrinolysis or PCI?
• An elderly patient with suspected upper GI bleeding; which diagnostic study is most appropriate to locate the bleeding source?
• Which mechanism is NOT associated with a wedge fracture?
• Sickle cell patient with chest pain, dyspnea, cough, and fever. Most likely diagnosis?
• In the sequence for correcting fluids and electrolytes, which component is addressed third?
• What is the typical pain description for Acute Coronary Syndrome?
• Spinal shock is typically characterized by which finding?
• Which dermatosis presents with erythematous plaques with silvery scales, well-marginated, often with nail pitting?
• In Class 4 hypovolemic shock, estimated blood loss is?
• In septic shock, which is a key initial therapy?
• Which symptom is associated with hypercalcemia?
• During a physical exam, palpation between the ischial tuberosity and the greater trochanter in a patient with leg radiation identifies which nerve?
• Which of the following is a listed cause of hypercalcemia related to vitamin D activity?
• What is the most common pathogen for foodborne disease?
• A midsystolic click heard best at the apex indicates which condition?
• Erythema on the thighs and buttocks with an annular scaly edge is characteristic of which condition?
• Systemic corticosteroids can have what negative effect on the eye?
• Which of the following is NOT among the five T's?
• If epistaxis does not respond to anterior packing, which type of epistaxis should be suspected?
• Stasis dermatitis is most commonly associated with which underlying condition?
• A patient with salmonellosis is treated with which antibiotic?
• An HIV-positive patient with chest discomfort, a pericardial friction rub, diffuse ST elevations, and normal troponin levels most likely has which diagnosis?
• Trauma to the abdomen with signs of blood loss and peritoneal contamination indicates which type of injury?
• Which sign may accompany pulmonary embolism?
• Class I hypovolemic shock is characterized by which of the following?
• Dengue fever management?
• Very high triglycerides are associated with an increased risk of pancreatitis. Which lipid category is most closely linked?
• Which is a fracture-dislocation of the tarsometatarsal joint?
• CSF findings in herpes simplex encephalitis typically include which of the following?
• What is the definitive treatment for constrictive pericarditis?
• In thyroid storm, which medication is used to inhibit thyroid hormone synthesis and peripheral conversion?
• Which of the following is classified as a positive symptom of schizophrenia?
• Which statement correctly describes Type 3 pelvic fracture?
• Factitious hyponatremia is most commonly associated with which of the following?
• Which three medications are first-line therapy for hepatitis B?
• A 76-year-old man with dyspnea and signs of congestive heart failure would most likely have which abdominal finding due to hepatic congestion?
• For mild bronchiolitis, which treatment is commonly used?
• Which of the following is NOT a recognized component of the standard shock definition?
• Which radiographic finding is most characteristic of a pericardial effusion?
• In first trimester vaginal bleeding, which type of abortion is defined by an open cervical os with no products of conception expelled?
• Treatment for suspected adrenal crisis should include which of the following?
• Which organism is involved in Toxic Shock Syndrome?
• Deficiency in factor IX is associated with which disorder?
• Which physical finding indicates poor peripheral perfusion in shock?
• Which pathogens are commonly associated with patchy radiographic infiltrates in pneumonia?
• Which of the following lists the components of the Primary Survey in trauma care?
• What is the first consideration in the management of an adolescent with an eating disorder and weight concerns?
• A FOOSH injury with snuff box tenderness indicates which fracture?
• Name one scoring system that begins with the letter H and is used to guide ACS treatment.
• Calcium pyrophosphate crystals in synovial fluid are associated with pseudogout. Which joint is most commonly affected by pseudogout?
• For peripheral artery disease, which therapeutic measures are commonly used?
• Rhogam administration during pregnancy is indicated for which maternal-fetal Rh combination?
• Which drug is used to treat Leishmaniasis?
• Which murmur description is most consistent with aortic stenosis?
• A patient with petechiae, diffuse hemorrhages, altered mental status, oliguria, and focal ischemia is most consistent with which diagnosis?
• Impetigo is a contagious superficial skin infection most commonly caused by Staph aureus; which topical antibiotic is commonly used?
• In ciguatera seafood poisoning, which of the following is NOT a common source of the toxin?
• Which pulse finding is classically associated with aortic regurgitation?
• The findings of unilateral periorbital edema (Romana sign), painful cutaneous edema (Chagoma), lymphadenopathy, and hepatosplenomegaly are most consistent with which disease?
• Fever, malaise, vesicular rash at various stages on face and trunk is most consistent with which disease?
• Which regimen is recommended for treatment of gonorrhea and chlamydia co-infection?
• According to CDC guidelines, what induration size is considered positive for persons born in high prevalence areas or IV drug users?
• Which of the following is NOT a listed cause of hypercalcemia?
• What nerve injury is associated with a humeral shaft fracture?
• Which imaging study is considered the gold standard for aortic dissection but is the most invasive radiographic study?
• In hyponatremia management, which statement is true?
• ____ is an uncommon cause of acute renal failure due to immune complex deposits in the kidney. Dysmorphic RBC and RBC casts are common.
• In Hymenoptera stings, which option best describes initial management to remove venom and prevent progression of symptoms?
• A 2-year-old with acute abdominal pain and bloody diarrhea most likely has which diagnosis?
• For severe high altitude illness, which combination of medications is recommended?
• Which intervention may be indicated for severe barbiturate toxicity but is ineffective for benzodiazepines?
• Which nerve root primarily innervates the anterior tibialis muscle?
• Pediatric fever algorithm: for babies less than 28 days old with fever ≥38°C, what is the recommended management?
• Which diagnostic test is used for suspected tinea capitis?
• Which sign is used to assess median nerve function?
• What is the antidote for digoxin toxicity?
• Hepatitis D must you have co-infection with which hepatitis?
• Which radiographic sign is associated with pancreatitis on X-ray, as mentioned in the material?
• Which of the following is NOT a listed cause of hypovolemic shock?
• A 45-year-old man presents with hematemesis and melena; he has NSAID use and alcohol; an NG tube yields bright red blood that does not clear with saline. What is the next best step in management?
• Interdigital scaling, maceration, erythema of the soles or palms, and itching is most consistent with which diagnosis?
• Which patient profile is at highest risk for myxedema coma?
• Subclavian Steal Syndrome typically presents with symptoms triggered by exercising which limb due to retrograde vertebral artery flow?
• What is the definition of hypercalcemia?
• A 48-year-old man experiences loss of consciousness followed by muscle rigidity and rhythmic contractions, then returns to a normal state. Approximately 6 hours later, he suffers a second episode. Which medication is he most likely taking?
• Which of the following is a symptom included in the SLUDGE mnemonic for organophosphate poisoning?
• L4 radiculopathy typically presents with weakness in which muscle?
• Bennett fracture is an oblique fracture of which bone near the carpometacarpal joint?
• A classic skin finding in erythema multiforme is what?
• A patient with heavy alcohol use presents with severe midepigastric pain radiating to the back and fever; WBC elevated and amylase elevated. The most likely diagnosis is?
• Which antibiotic class is commonly used to treat pertussis?
• What combination defines diabetic ketoacidosis in terms of glucose, bicarbonate, and pH?
• Which radiographic sign is described as the coffee bean sign on abdominal imaging?
• Which laboratory finding is commonly elevated in acute pulmonary embolism and used in initial assessment?
• Abdominal pain, severe anemia, and red burrows underneath the skin are characteristic of which infection?
• In Class 3 hypovolemic shock, the pulse is greater than?
• A patient presents with small grey vesicles and punched-out ulcers in the posterior pharynx. Which organism most likely causes this presentation?
• What is the Nikolsky sign?
• Which medication is indicated if a mushroom-poisoning patient is hallucinating or agitated?
• Which symptom is commonly associated with hypokalemia?
• What is the recommended BP-lowering target pattern in malignant hypertension?
• Which of the following is a likely cause of a high anion gap metabolic acidosis in a non-diabetic patient?
• A suspected aspirin overdose presents with which acid-base disturbance?
• Which of the following is a potential consequence of correcting sodium too rapidly in a patient with hypernatremia?
• An 88-year-old woman falls and presents with a shortened, abducted, externally rotated leg and knee pain. Which injury is most likely?
• Which finding is NOT typical of Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic State?
• Which statement is true about distributive shock?
• Fusiform cerebral aneurysms typically develop in which artery?
• Which of the following is NOT a listed cause of hypomagnesemia?
• Which heat stroke type is associated with respiratory alkalosis?
• Which antibiotic is appropriate for suspected Vibrio infection from a marine wound?
• For suspected ruptured ovarian cyst causing acute pain, what is the diagnostic imaging modality of choice?
• A patient with hip fracture is suspected after an elderly fall. Which fracture best fits a shortened leg with external rotation?
• According to Ottawa ankle rules, which of the following is a criterion prompting radiographs?
• Midsystolic murmur that decreases with squatting and increases with Valsalva is most consistent with which condition?
• Which organism is responsible for Streptococcal Toxic Shock Syndrome?
• Which condition is defined by excess mucus production and a productive cough for at least 3 months per year for two consecutive years?
• A hernia that cannot be reduced is called which of the following?
• How long after a myocardial infarction can CK-MB and troponin I elevations be detected according to the source?
• What is the treatment for cauda equina syndrome?
• Which statement correctly describes Type 2 pelvic fracture?
• Which fracture is the fracture of the anterolateral aspect of the distal tibia in adolescents before complete closure of the epiphysis?
• What delta pressure value indicates compartment syndrome?
• Which is true of encephalitis CSF findings?
• How are burns categorized?
• Mycoplasma pneumoniae most commonly affects which age group?
• In a patient presenting with fatigue, jaundice, pruritus, yellow plaques, osteoarthritis, and portal hypertension, which diagnosis is most likely?
• Which antibiotic is used to treat the ulceroglandular form of tularemia?
• What is the definitive treatment for testicular torsion?
• Which class of medications is generally contraindicated in congestive heart failure?
• Which condition features pruritus, tightening of the skin, flaking and scaling, and low-grade fever?
• Which organism is commonly associated with contamination of eggs, dairy products, or poultry?
• Which anatomical structures most often explain periumbilical abdominal pain?
• How long does tissue necrosis take after a high‑pressure pinpoint entry of a foreign body?
• Which of the following is a cause of hypovolemic shock?
• Infant with sunken fontanelles, decreased capillary refill, no tears, and few wet diapers most likely has dehydration; which IV fluid is indicated?
• For an adult with black stools (melena) and no systemic symptoms, what is the most appropriate initial diagnostic test?
• Which statement best reflects the treatment approach for High Altitude Pulmonary Edema?
• Which antibiotic classes are used to treat both anthrax and Yersinia pestis plague?
• Erysipelas is characterized by infection of the dermis with lymphatic involvement and raised margins; which antibiotic regimen is commonly used?
• Which AV block is characterized by progressive PR interval lengthening until a P wave is dropped?
• What deformity predisposes to testicular torsion?
• Stones less than how many millimeters have about 90% chance of passing spontaneously?
• What is the definition of hyperkalemia?
• What are the 6 levels of motor response in the Glasgow Coma Scale?
• When calcium is low, PTH increases and leads to what effect on bone and renal calcium handling?
• What is the treatment for retinal detachment to correct the tear?
• Which organism is commonly associated with native valve endocarditis?
• Which option correctly pairs the type of hypotonic hyponatremia with an example?
• Late decelerations are described as which pattern on fetal monitoring?
• An adult woman has a witnessed generalized seizure with tongue biting and urinary incontinence, followed by a postictal state. The most likely etiology is?
• Which antibiotic is commonly used to treat chlamydia?
• Which long bone is the most commonly fractured in the body?
• Open or complex tibial fractures are sometimes associated with which complication?
• Pityriasis rosea is classically preceded by a herald patch and followed by patches in a Christmas tree pattern along skin lines. Which condition is this?
• In a patient with insomnia and tachycardia, which diagnosis is most likely and which lab finding would confirm it?
• In concussion grading by the American Academy of Neurology, which grade corresponds to confusion with no loss of consciousness for less than 15 minutes?
• Which test is diagnostic of Achilles tendon rupture?
• In diabetic ketoacidosis, which pH value is typically observed?
• Which carpal bone is second most commonly fractured and is the most commonly dislocated?
• Initial treatment for an ankle fracture includes which of the following?
• Beclomethasone (Qvar) is which type of medication?
• Which imaging modality is more sensitive for hyperacute and acute intracranial hemorrhage?
• Cryptosporidiosis treatment includes which option for certain patients?
• What are the characteristics of 3rd degree frostbite?
• Which statement best defines malignant hypertension?
• What is the recommended action if there is no improvement after four months of hepatitis B treatment?
• Which examination tests radial nerve function?
• What is the first step in managing spine injuries?
• What are the classic symptoms of aortic stenosis?
• The dinner fork deformity is most characteristic of which fracture?
• In carbon monoxide poisoning, what therapy may be used beyond high-flow oxygen?
• A 62-year-old patient presents with a unilateral pupil size difference. Which diagnostic test is most likely to identify the cause?
• West Nile virus typically presents with fever and headache after a mosquito bite. Which is the recommended initial management?
• A key differential for Guillain-Barre syndrome should always be considered due to similar ascending paralysis. Which toxin is this referring to?
• Which sensory change is considered pathognomonic for ciguatera poisoning?
• Which biomarker remains elevated the longest after myocardial infarction?
• Which organism causes syphilis?
• An elderly woman with wrist pain near the anatomic snuffbox after a fall; which carpal bone is most likely fractured?
• The definitive imaging test to order when a patient has back pain with neurological deficits is:
• According to the Duke criteria, which finding is a major criterion for infective endocarditis?
• Asthma or COPD: which antihypertensive should be avoided?
• Which is the most common type of anthrax?
• What is the most common cause of infectious arthritis in young adults?
• ST elevations in leads II, III, and aVF indicate infarction in which territory and artery?
• A 35-year-old woman presents with multiple ulcerative lesions on the labia; Tzanck preparation shows multinucleated giant cells. What is the most likely diagnosis?
• Which topical therapy is commonly used as first-line treatment for psoriasis?
• For tinea barbae, which systemic antifungal agent is listed as a treatment option?
• Small bowel and colon injuries are most commonly caused by what type of trauma?
• Osteomyelitis is most commonly caused by which organism?
• Which cardiac marker appears 3-6 hours after MI and remains elevated for 2-4 days and is specific to heart muscle?
• The nonpitting, dry, waxy swelling of the skin seen in myxedema is referred to as what?
• Following severe retching and a strenuous lifting session, which diagnosis best explains hematemesis in this patient?
• In a patient with gastritis presenting with hematemesis, which test is most sensitive for diagnosing the condition?
• Placental abruption is typically associated with which features?
• Which nerve is most commonly injured in mid- or distal humeral shaft fractures?
• Deficiency in factor VIII is associated with which bleeding disorder?
• Bronchial foreign body aspiration presents with which signs?
• Among empiric pneumonia treatment categories, which corresponds to aspiration pneumonia acquired in the hospital setting?
• What is the most common vector-borne zoonotic infection in the United States?
• Exudates are characterized by which of the following?
• Which sign would indicate diaphragmatic injury after trauma?
• What is the initial management for hypercalcemia?
• Time to heal for a superficial second-degree burn is typically:
• In a patient who has experienced intimate partner violence, which of the following actions is most appropriate to recommend?
• A positive Coombs test indicates which condition?
• A patient with chronic alcoholism presents with nystagmus, ophthalmoplegia, confusion, and ataxia. This presentation is most consistent with deficiency of which vitamin?
• Empiric therapy for cellulitis should cover which organisms?
• Which of the following is a common cause of hypotonic euvolemic hyponatremia?
• In Class 2 hypovolemic shock, the pulse is greater than which value?
• A 43-year-old male presents with eye pain after exposure to fertilizer and lime. Which is the most appropriate initial step in managing this patient's symptoms?
• A fracture involving the medial epicondyle will most likely damage which nerve?
• Which Hymenoptera reaction is characterized by a delayed reaction days after stinging?
• A positive troponin result is defined by what criterion?
• What is the PERC criteria used for?
• What is the most common ankle sprain?
• Which heart disease presents with an opening snap in early diastole and a soft diastolic rumble heard at the apex in the left lateral decubitus position?
• Which congenital heart disease is classically associated with cyanosis due to a right-to-left shunt?
• In a hypoglycemic diabetic patient with confusion and sweating, what is the most appropriate initial treatment?
• Acute bacterial prostatitis is treated with antibiotics for how long?
• Which treatment option is used for genital warts?
• A patient has a fixed dilated pupil on the right, left-sided weakness after head trauma, and a biconvex lesion on CT. Diagnosis?
• What is the treatment for tension pneumothorax?
• Which antibiotic is listed as a treatment for plague (Yersinia pestis)?
• Which antidote is used for tricyclic antidepressant overdose?
• Which infection is commonly associated with precipitating erythema multiforme?
• Which of the following is NOT a listed cause of hypothermia?
• Which is the leading cause of lost work time and disability for people under age 45?
• What is the best way to assess blood volume status in an acute setting?
• Red dots on the waist, shoulders, and axillae progress to papules and wheals with intense itching and small white spheres attached to hair. This describes which infestation?
• Which illness is caused by a virus from the Coltivirus genus?
• Which EKG findings are classic in hypokalemia?
• What nerve injury is associated with a sacral fracture?
• Which of the following is a common cause of anion gap metabolic acidosis?
• In adults, which joints are dislocated more frequently than the elbow?
• Cerebral perfusion pressure is calculated as MAP minus ICP. Brain ischemia occurs when CPP falls below what value?
• What is the most common cause of acute arthritis in young adults?
• Chest radiographic pattern is most typical for Mycoplasma pneumonia?
• Which respiration pattern is commonly seen in diabetic ketoacidosis but not in Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic State?
• For a patient with generalized convulsive status epilepticus, the initial intravenous treatment is which drug?
• What is the most common cause of anaphylactic shock?
• Which medication is used to treat pruritus in biliary cirrhosis?
• Which combination can cause hypermagnesemia?
• A patient with a history of SVT who failed vagal maneuvers is given a drug that acutely terminates the arrhythmia by slowing conduction through the AV node. Which drug is the first-line choice?
• What is the first-line management step for contact dermatitis?
• Which finding would most strongly indicate necrotizing fasciitis rather than cellulitis?
• Which medication must be gradually discontinued to avoid rebound hypertension if stopped abruptly?
• Broca's area is primarily associated with which function?
• Which statement best reflects the initial management for suspected spinal epidural abscess according to the material?
• In suspected necrotizing fasciitis, which antibiotic combination provides broad-spectrum coverage appropriate for initial empiric therapy?
• Which test detects PROM by measuring the pH of amniotic fluid and is alkaline when PROM is present?
• Which radiographic sign on a chest X-ray indicates a pleural effusion?
• Which electrolyte pattern is typical in adrenal crisis?
• Which of the following best represents the standard treatment for moderate to major thermal burns?
• A 64-year-old man with perforated sigmoid colon undergoes emergent surgery. Which operation is most appropriate in an unprepared patient?
• Beclomethasone (Qvar) is what type of drug?
• Lactated Ringer's solution is contraindicated in patients who are likely to have which condition?
• Which statement best describes the management of Eastern Coral Snake bites?
• Bethesda inhibitor assay is for measuring the amount of antibody against factors in Hemophilia A and B.
• Aspiration yields yellow, transparent fluid with 200–2000 WBCs and less than 25% PMNs. This fluid is best classified as:
• What is the gold standard imaging for diagnosing suspected bladder injury after trauma?
• Which fracture is a radial fracture with distal ulna dislocation?
• Which statement expands the SLUDGE mnemonic used for organophosphate poisoning symptoms?
• Which ECG finding is characteristic of hyperkalemia?
• Subdural hematoma on CT is typically crescent-shaped. Which option reflects this?
• Which of the following is NOT a symptom of early hypothermia?
• Which specialty follow-up is appropriate after a suspected ACL injury?
• A patient with progressive fatigue, abdominal pain, weight loss, vomiting, and hyperpigmented skin folds is most suggestive of which endocrine disorder?
• Why should vaginal examination be avoided in a patient with suspected placenta previa?
• Chance fracture is a fracture through which vertebral columns?
• Intrinsic acute kidney injury is most commonly associated with which condition?
• Which animal is categorized as low risk for rabies in the source material?
• A 4-year-old child ingested a substance found in a purse, causing vomiting and abdominal pain. Which medication is most likely involved?
• Which fracture pattern is produced by a rotational force?
• Patellofemoral syndrome is most common in which population?
• According to CDC guidelines, what induration size is considered positive in all other cases?
• Botulism is caused by a neurotoxin produced by which organism?
• Which drug is used to treat Schistosomiasis?
• Which incomplete spinal injury has the worst prognosis?
• In a patient with sudden hypotension, muffled heart sounds, pulsus paradoxus, and echocardiography showing a large pericardial effusion, what is the most appropriate next step in management?
• Which scenario would prompt plain radiographs for back pain according to red flags?
• Which disease is associated with fever, rash, and a history of tick bite as classical features?
• A twisting knee injury with knee deformity after sports is most consistent with which diagnosis?
• Yellow fever virus family?
• In acute pericarditis, the ECG changes are due to inflammation of which layer?
• Greasy yellow scales on the chest and face are most consistent with which condition?
• Which vasopressor is commonly used for hypotension in cardiogenic shock?
• Most thoracolumbar fractures are located between which vertebral levels?
• What medication do we not give with diarrhea according to the material?
• What is the standard initial treatment for an acute myocardial infarction?
• A patient presents with fatigue, anxiety, and palpitations; exam reveals a midsystolic click. What is the most likely diagnosis?
• Which pathogen is most commonly acquired from eating undercooked beef and can cause hemolytic uremic syndrome and thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura?
• In hemolytic anemia, which laboratory value is typically decreased?
• Stevens-Johnson syndrome requires admission to which level of care?
• Lice infested followed by high fever, severe headache, maculopapular rash starting in axillae.
• Which bone is the most commonly fractured bone in the upper extremity?
• On a lateral neck radiograph, which sign is classically associated with epiglottitis?
• In electrical injuries, which age group typically experiences low voltage injuries from electrical outlets?
• Which of the following is included in the PERC rule to rule out the need for further imaging in suspected PE?
• Which of the following is NOT a symptom of late hypothermia?
• Cystic acne with ulcerating lesions, fever, myalgia, and hepatosplenomegaly.
• Which fracture is a distal radius fracture with dorsal displacement, commonly resulting from a fall on an outstretched hand (FOOSH)?
• Which acronym lists risk factors used to assess suicide risk?
• What is the Rule of the Nines proportion for the head in burn injuries?
• Which nerve injury is a known complication of tibial fractures?
• Which DSM-IV axis addresses psychosocial and environmental factors?
• In a systemic Hymenoptera reaction, what is the first-line treatment?
• Which organism causes erysipeloid with marginating plaques after handling fish?
• Which stool finding is most specific for occult blood testing in diarrhea?
• In an unconscious patient with suspected overdose, in what order should you administer thiamine, glucose, and naloxone?
• Which respiratory pattern is commonly observed in alcoholic ketoacidosis?
• In hypertensive emergency, what is the target reduction in blood pressure within the first hour?
• Enlarged tonsils, exudates, and petechiae of the palate are classic for infection with which organism?
• For a diabetic foot ulcer less than 2 cm, superficial, with no fever or ischemic changes, which management is appropriate?
• Tender papule that evolves into a painful purulent ulcer with unilateral inguinal adenopathy is most consistent with which diagnosis?
• Which topical treatment is appropriate for mild thermal burns?
• If hypertonic saline is given too rapidly for acute hyponatremia, which complication may occur?
• In the Glasgow Coma Scale, which Verbal score corresponds to inappropriate words?
• Brudzinski sign is described as spontaneous hip flexion during attempted passive neck flexion.
• Which equation is used to estimate extracellular fluid deficit in dehydration?
• Which knee structure is most likely injured in an anterior cruciate ligament tear during a non-contact pivoting injury?
• Time to heal for a deep second-degree burn is typically:
• An 8-month-old with RSV bronchiolitis; which finding most strongly indicates a need for hospital admission and continued monitoring?
• During pertussis, the catarrhal stage most closely resembles which condition?
• A 59-year-old woman sustains second- and third-degree burns to the head and neck, anterior surfaces of both arms, one leg, and the trunk including the genital area. Using the Rule of Nines, which estimate best reflects the total burn area?
• Which of the following is a distributive (vasodilatory) shock type?
• Herald patch preceding a diffuse eruption in a Christmas-tree pattern along skin lines is characteristic of which condition?
• Which clinical sign is most characteristic of diabetic ketoacidosis?
• Which leg position suggests an anterior hip dislocation?
• During a shoulder dislocation, which nerve is most at risk of injury?
• What are the three phases of Lyme disease?
• Which test most reliably confirms the causative organism in suspected herpes simplex virus encephalitis presenting with meningitis features?
• Pulsus paradoxus is most commonly associated with which condition?
• What is the most common complication of Amebiasis?
• What is the most common form of tetanus?
• Erythema multiforme that involves mucous membranes is known as which condition?
• How long does it take before Lyme disease can be transmitted from a tick to a person?
• An 18-year-old woman presents with fever, confusion, and a petechial rash. CSF analysis shows elevated WBCs, elevated protein, and decreased glucose. Which organism is most likely the cause of bacterial meningitis in this age group?
• Which laboratory finding is most characteristic of a cholestatic liver disease such as biliary cirrhosis?
• Cranial Nerves: Which option lists a correct pairing?
• Which hemorrhage is associated with thunderclap headache and stiff neck due to aneurysm rupture?
• Which pattern of fetal heart rate deceleration begins and ends with the contraction?
• In the management of diabetic ketoacidosis, what is considered the most important initial step?
• A 55-year-old woman with a history of mitral valve replacement and mitral stenosis presents with increasing dyspnea on exertion and palpitations. ECG shows atrial flutter with 2:1 AV block. Her INR has been therapeutic for 4 weeks. What is the most appropriate next step in treatment?
• Which factor is NOT useful in diagnosing dysbarism?
• Severe dehydration is diagnosed with signs such as dry mucosa and tachycardia; what IV regimen best matches this scenario?
• What is the most common etiologic organism causing spinal infection?
• Which physical sign would confirm opioid intoxication?
• An elderly patient with cancer presents with back pain, confusion, and constipation. What electrolyte abnormality is most likely?
• Which condition is a known risk factor for multifocal atrial tachycardia (MAT)?
• In the initial assessment of blunt abdominal trauma in a hemodynamically unstable patient, which diagnostic test is most appropriate to perform first?
• Which of the following is NOT a component of the NEXUS criteria for clearing the cervical spine?
• In disseminated intravascular coagulation, which transfusion product is listed as a treatment option?
• Which of the following is a treatment option for glaucoma mentioned in the material?
• Recent travel with fever, headache, conjunctival injection, facial flushing followed by jaundice, black emesis, and albuminuria.
• Pediatric fever algorithm: for children aged 28 days to 3 months with fever ≥38°C, what is recommended?
• Giant multinucleated cells observed on cytology are most characteristic of infection with which virus?
• Boxer's fracture is a fracture of the neck of the fourth or fifth metacarpal, typically from striking with a clenched fist. Which fracture name matches this description?
• What is the most common cause of pleural effusions?
• What is the classic arrhythmia associated with COPD?
• Which of the following is recommended if a Gila Monster bite is still attached to the patient?
• Which preventive measure is commonly recommended in chemical skin burns after exposure?
• Which fracture is an ulna shaft fracture with proximal radius dislocation?
• In managing atrial flutter, which drug would be most appropriate if pressor support is required rather than rate control or rhythm conversion?
• In the NYHA functional classification, which class corresponds to no limitation of activity with ordinary activity?
• What ECG finding is characteristic of acute pericarditis?
• What is the antidote for benzodiazepine overdose?
• Prolonged bleeding after trauma with normal PT and PTT. Dx and tx?
• A patient presents with spastic paralysis on the right, loss of proprioception and vibration on the right, and loss of pain and temperature on the left after spinal trauma. Dx?
• What nerve injury is associated with an acetabulum fracture?
• Which fracture is an oblique fracture through the base of the radial styloid?
• Which of the following is a hallmark feature of heat stroke?
• What is the emergent treatment for arterial embolism or thrombosis presenting with pain, pallor, pulselessness, paresthesias, and paralysis?
• In an HIV-positive patient with multiple ring-enhancing brain lesions and edema, which treatment is the choice?
• Which of the following is a neurologic effect listed for malignant hypertension?
• Renal tubular acidosis is best described as which type of metabolic acidosis?
• Botulism is commonly associated with ingestion of which exposure?
• Which of the following is listed among home medications after ACS for cardiovascular risk reduction?
• In a known drug overdose, clinicians commonly check serum levels of which three substances?
• In a greenstick fracture, which radiographic description best describes this fracture?
• Osteomyelitis in adult intravenous drug abusers most commonly affects which bones?
• An older patient presents to the ER with recurrent syncope and a completely unremarkable cardiac workup. Which diagnosis should be considered as a likely cause?
• What are the three main management strategies described for atrial fibrillation?
• Kehr sign is defined as what?
• Vaginitis with intense vaginal pruritus, malodorous yellow-green discharge, and urethritis is most consistent with which infection?
• In a HIV-positive patient with diffuse ST elevations and chest pain, which exam finding is most likely?
• Common complications of a Galeazzi fracture include which of the following?
• Under the Ottawa ankle rules, which finding warrants ankle radiographs?
• Vitamin K deficiency affects which of the following factors?
• Which combination constitutes the classic triad of Wernicke's encephalopathy?
• What is generally the first imaging study for suspected testicular torsion?
• Pediatric fever algorithm: for children aged 91 days to 3 years who are non-toxic appearing with fever ≥39°C and fully immunized, what is recommended?
• Current anticoagulation with INR 2-3 is considered what in the decision to use thrombolysis?
• Which description best matches the typical pain of pancreatitis?
• Which of the following is a primary malignant tumor of the bone?
• What is the recommended splinting position for mallet finger?
• Which statement best defines the pain duration categories: acute, subacute, and chronic?
• In chronic renal failure, which antihypertensive is listed as part of the recommended therapy?
• Which of the following conditions can cause hypotonic hypervolemic hyponatremia?
• Klebsiella pneumoniae is particularly associated with pneumonia in which populations?
• Which term describes a hernia in which bowel edema compromises its blood supply?
• What is the hallmark symptom of acute mountain sickness?
• What does chest X-ray show in a tension pneumothorax?
• Which COPD phenotype is associated with the term 'blue bloater'?
• Which disease is characterized by hydrophobia and rapidly progressive encephalitis following exposure?
• What are the most common causes of cardiomyopathy?
• A 66-year-old man with hypertension presents with sudden tearing chest and back pain, hypotension, and a diastolic murmur best heard at the base. What is the most likely diagnosis?
• What condition is defined by the presence of endometrial tissue outside the endometrial cavity, with symptoms such as dyspareunia, infertility, abnormal bleeding, and chronic pelvic pain?
• In a Rh-negative woman with vaginal bleeding before 12 weeks gestation, what is the indicated Rhogam dose?
• In hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, which medication class is commonly used to relieve symptoms?
• Which EKG finding is most characteristic of hypothermia?
• Bloody diarrhea and fever developing within 24-48 hours after eating contaminated food. Dx and tx.
• In a patient with sickle cell disease presenting with chest pain, fever, tachypnea, and hypoxemia, what is the most likely diagnosis?
• What is a typical initial treatment for metabolic alkalosis?
• Which cancer is among the most common to metastasize to the vertebrae and cause back pain?
• Lyme disease is caused by which organism?
• Where is the most likely site of elbow bursitis in a patient with swelling near the elbow?
• Labyrinthitis presents with rotational vertigo and nystagmus. What is the characteristic direction of nystagmus?
• Infective endocarditis, which finding confirms the diagnosis as a minor criterion per Duke criteria?
• Which therapy is central to the management of methanol or ethylene glycol poisoning?
• Which cervical vertebrae innervate the diaphragm?
• In suspected heparin-induced bleeding, what is an appropriate initial management step?
• How long should Plavix/Clopidogrel be used for drug-eluting stents?
• In CRAO, the macula appears on exam as which of the following?
• What are the 4 levels of eye opening in the Glasgow Coma Scale?
• Which of the following is part of the classic pentad of Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura?
• In S1 radiculopathy, which area of sensation is affected?
• Which of the following is a cardiac effect of malignant hypertension?
• In pediatric patients, which joint is the most commonly dislocated?
• What finding is typically seen on a peripheral blood smear in a patient with sickle cell disease experiencing a pain crisis?
• What is the most common cause of true hyperkalemia?
• Placenta previa is typically described with which bleeding pattern and fetal status?
• What is the drug of choice for treating Necator americanus (hookworm) infection?
• Boxer's fracture describes a fracture of which bone?
• The four types of urinary incontinence are total, stress, urge, and overflow. What term completes the sentence?
• In suspected acute epiglottitis, which diagnostic test is indicated to assess airway risk?
• A patient presents with red lesions and white plaques on the vulva with months of intense pruritus. The clinician is concerned for which condition?
• What is an appropriate initial empiric antibiotic regimen for orbital cellulitis?
• If bradyarrhythmias are not responsive to atropine, what additional management should be considered?
• Which diagnosis corresponds to mild swelling of the hands and feet after exposure to a hot environment?
• A Colles fracture typically involves which direction of the distal fragment's tilt?
• What is the testing modality of choice for HSV meningoencephalitis?
• In the treatment of achalasia, which medication can act as a muscle relaxant?
• Which is an example of isovolemic hypernatremia?
• Treatment of torsades de pointes in a patient on procainamide is which of the following?
• A 17 year-old patient presents to the emergency department with agitation and hallucinations, and has one seizure. He admits to using "some drugs" but does not know what they were. Which diagnostic study will be of most help in managing this patient?
• What is the initial treatment for suspected carbon monoxide poisoning?
• Hyphema refers to blood in which part of the eye?
• Secondary hypertension is defined as hypertension due to an identifiable cause.
• What are the imaging modalities of choice for suspected cholecystitis and appendicitis, respectively?
• In trauma, hyperresonance to percussion is most consistent with which diagnosis?
• In a patient with a hyperglycemic hyperosmolar state who is undergoing vigorous rehydration and IV insulin, when should glucose be added to the IV fluids?
• Which Le Fort fracture describes craniofacial disjunction with the entire face separated from the skull?
• Liquefaction necrosis after a chemical spill on the arm indicates which type of burn?
• Which imaging modality is very accurate for differentiating ischemic from hemorrhagic stroke?
• In bronchiolitis, auscultation commonly reveals what findings?
• Which disease classically shows a widened mediastinum and hilar adenopathy with no focal infiltrate on chest X-ray?
• Which medication is NOT a first-line therapy for hepatitis B?
• What EKG finding is classically associated with pulmonary embolism?
• Which AV block results in atrial and ventricular rhythms that are independent of each other?
• The three factors used in the clinical diagnosis of heat stroke are listed below. Which option lists them correctly?
• Which obstetric condition is defined as hypertension (>140/90) with proteinuria and edema during pregnancy?
• A wedge fracture is caused by which mechanism?
• Which statement is true about management of marine puncture wounds?
• A 23-year-old man presents with fever, sore throat, fatigue, myalgias, and a morbilliform rash. Rapid strep and Monospot tests are negative. Which prevention strategy should be recommended for this patient?
• Which of the following lists represents the complete classic pentad of Leishmaniasis?
• Which findings are characteristic of bacterial vaginosis?
• What is the most common symptom of thrombocytopenia?
• Hangman's fracture refers to a fracture of which cervical vertebra?
• Which condition presents with sudden onset of eye pain, blurred vision, headache, nausea/vomiting and halos around lights?
• A 17-year-old male with tachycardia, hypertension, diaphoresis, and mydriasis after a drug exposure; most likely diagnosis?
• Which is part of managing respiratory acidosis?
• Which labs/imaging are ordered to diagnose pancreatitis?
• What is the initial management of heat stroke?
• What is the first-line single-dose antibiotic for chancroid?
• Baseline fetal heart rate range is between which of the following?
• Which scoring system is used to predict mortality in pancreatitis, with a value greater than 6 indicating high mortality?
• Obstruction in pediatric foreign body aspiration is most common in which airway?
• Central Cord Syndrome true statement?
• A patient with biopsy-confirmed temporal arteritis should be treated with which agent as first-line therapy?
• What is the most common fracture-dislocation of the wrist joint?
• Which therapy is controversial and not routinely recommended for spine injuries?
• What is the gold standard for diagnosis of intestinal ischemia?
• Permanent neuronal injury can ensue within how many minutes of continuous seizure activity, even in the absence of apparent convulsions?
• Which AV block is defined by a sudden block in a P wave with no change in PR interval?
• Alternating convergent strabismus is considered normal until what age in infants?
• In systolic dysfunction heart failure, which drug class is contraindicated?
• Which sputum findings are associated with asthma?
• First-line antibiotic for acute sinusitis is Augmentin 1000/62.5 for 7-10 days.
• Which electrolyte imbalance commonly presents with N/V, weakness, headache, agitation, and possible seizures?
• A 46-year-old woman presents with wrist pain and a jelly-like bump on the dorsum of the wrist. What is the most likely diagnosis?
• Match the cerebral lobes to their primary functions: Frontal Lobe, Parietal Lobe, Temporal Lobe, Occipital Lobe.
• What age group is most at risk to develop osteoid osteoma?
• Chvostek sign is elicited by tapping which nerve?
• Which burn depth involves the epidermis and upper dermis?
• What are the hyperkalemia electrocardiographic changes?
• A pregnant woman at 28 weeks with signs suggestive of rheumatic heart disease shows an opening snap and a diastolic rumble best heard at the apex in the left lateral decubitus position. Which lesion is most likely on echocardiogram?
• Volkmann's contracture is best described as which condition?
• Inflammatory plaques and follicular pustules in the beard area are most consistent with which diagnosis?
• After a recent sexual assault, which measure is most critical to improve prognosis?
• ST elevations in V1, V2, V3 indicate which MI and artery?
• Which heart sounds are typically heard with myocardial infarction?
• Which mechanism is most commonly associated with ACL tears?
• Which statement about Brown-Sequard syndrome is true?
• Tetralogy of Fallot has which associated symptom?
• In adrenal crisis, which treatment should be administered immediately?
• In the tamponade scenario, which intervention may be used but would not relieve the symptoms?
• Which of the following is listed as a diarrhea treatment in the material?
• What are the most reliable measures of dehydration?
• Mallory-Weiss tears occur after retching and involve tears of the underlying which vascular structure?
• What is the recommended method of tick removal?
• Which metronidazole regimen is recommended for Trichomoniasis?
• What is the most common cause of hypomagnesemia?
• Achalasia shows a classic deformity on barium swallow. What is this deformity commonly described as?
• Which antibiotic is paired with cefazolin for open fracture prophylaxis?
• The decrescendo–crescendo systolic murmur best heard at the base of the heart and radiating to the neck corresponds to which condition?
• A 19-year-old with psychosis uses made-up words and phrases. What type of verbal utterance is this?
• What are the values for mild, moderate, and severe levels of the Glasgow Coma Scale?
• Which organism produces a clinic syndrome similar to appendicitis and is spread via the fecal-oral route?
• Which type of shoulder dislocation is most common?
• Which of the following is not part of the five Hs?
• In a femoral neck fracture that is non-displaced, what would you expect regarding leg length?
• Which feature best differentiates diabetic ketoacidosis from hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state?
• Which electrolyte disturbance presents with depression, vertigo, nystagmus, ataxia, seizures, dysphagia, hypothermia and characteristic DTR changes?
• Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to thrombolytic therapy?
• What chest radiograph finding is typical of emphysema?
• Portal hypertension in biliary cirrhosis most commonly leads to which complication?
• Which antiviral is used to treat herpes simplex encephalitis?
• In the described case of unknown drug use and fever, why is a urine drug screen not the most helpful diagnostic test?
• Trousseau sign is best described as what?
• What are the characteristics of 1st degree frostbite (frostnip)?
• A proximal ulna fracture with dislocation of the radial head at the elbow is diagnosed as which injury?
• Which of the following best describes the treatment for thyroid storm?
• Which staining method is used to identify Plasmodium on a blood smear?
• What is the antidote for acetaminophen toxicity?
• Which imaging studies and signs are typically seen in congestive heart failure?
• In electrical injuries, which age group is more likely to experience high voltage injuries at work?
• Inversion ankle sprain typically injures which ligament first?
• Nongonococcal urethritis commonly presents with what symptom?
• Osteosarcoma has a bimodal age distribution with peaks at which age ranges?
• For chemical spills involving metals such as sodium, lithium, calcium, or magnesium, what irrigation fluid is preferred?
• Which is a critical component of management for epiglottitis?
• In Class 4 hypovolemic shock, blood volume lost is?
• Which of the following is a listed cause of hypercalcemia?
• Which syndrome injures the anterior aspect of the spinal cord causing paralysis and loss of pain and temperature with preserved position sense?
• Varicella treatment in immunocompromised patients or those older than 12 years should include which antiviral?
• In the Glasgow Coma Scale, which description corresponds to an Eye Opening score of 3?
• What is the initial management step for suspected tension pneumothorax?
• What physical finding is most characteristic of pericarditis?
• Which DSM-IV axis corresponds to general and acute medical conditions?
• In Class 3 hypovolemic shock, urine output is?
• This clinical picture — acute fever, focal neurologic deficits, CSF abnormalities, and temporal lobe lesions on CT — is most consistent with which diagnosis?
• In kidney disease–related bleeding disorders, which treatment is commonly used to shorten bleeding time by releasing stored von Willebrand factor and factor VIII?
• What is the progression from injury to death?
• Valgus laxity of the knee generally indicates injury to which ligament?
• Beck's triad includes which of the following components?
• What is a common, easily correctable cause of prerenal azotemia?
• In overdose decontamination, which method is most commonly used?
• Initial heart failure management commonly includes which combination?
• In infections with Shiga toxin–producing Escherichia coli, which intervention is contraindicated?
• Which clinical finding is characteristic of Kawasaki disease?
• In HIV-positive patients with AIDS presenting with ring-enhancing brain lesions, which organism is classically implicated and treated with sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine?
• In anterior cord syndrome, which modalities are preserved?
• What is a recommended management for gastroenteritis according to the material?
• A child pulled on the arm and now refuses to use the arm; what is the most likely injury?
• A 3-year-old boy presents with acute onset of cough and wheezing. Focal wheezing is heard in the right lower lung. Which test should be ordered to confirm the suspected diagnosis?
• In Class 2 hypovolemic shock, what percent of blood volume is lost?
• Which fracture is a transverse fracture of the diaphyseal region at the base of the fifth metatarsal?
• In pediatric hematogenous osteomyelitis, which bone is most commonly involved?
• Koilonychia (spoon nails), pallor, and cheilosis are characteristic of which condition?
• What is the most common cause of hypokalemia?
• In a trauma patient with suspected cardiac tamponade presenting with hypotension, JVD, and muffled heart sounds, what is the most appropriate first-line management?
• What is the most common ECG abnormality in patients with a pulmonary embolism?
• In a patient with symptomatic third-degree AV block and syncope, what is the definitive treatment?
• A 3-year-old with acute onset of cough and wheeze. Focal wheezing in the right lower lobe. Which is the most effective treatment for suspected foreign body aspiration?
• Which CSF finding is typical of Guillain-Barré syndrome?
• Delayed onset of mushroom poisoning symptoms (>6 hours) is associated with which prognosis?
• Subacute back pain duration is defined as pain lasting between which weeks?
• After blunt chest trauma, a patient has dullness to percussion and elevation of the right hemidiaphragm with diminished breath sounds. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
• Which Salter-Harris fracture types involve cartilage of both the articular surface and growth plate and usually require open reduction and internal fixation?
• A patient presents with headache, nausea, and dizziness after exposure to gas or smoke, with anion gap metabolic acidosis. What is the most likely diagnosis?
• Which statement correctly lists vitamin K–dependent clotting factors?
• A patient develops more than a 50% drop in platelets within a week of starting heparin. What is the most likely diagnosis?
• Which CSF profile is most typical of viral meningitis?
• Calcium channel blocker overdose typically presents with which effect on blood sugar?
• Which treatment option is appropriate for heat rash?
• Which finding on a saline wet prep is diagnostic for Trichomoniasis?
• Basal cell carcinoma is best described as which lesion?