PaEasy Emergency Medicine Practice Exam

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• Which term describes a hernia in which bowel edema compromises its blood supply?
• Fracture along the length of the radius with injury at the distal radioulnar joint is known as which fracture?
• For chemical spills involving metals such as sodium, lithium, calcium, or magnesium, what irrigation fluid is preferred?
• Which ABG pattern is associated with acute salicylate overdose?
• What imaging modality is used to diagnose splenic rupture in the material?
• Botulism is caused by a neurotoxin produced by which organism?
• What core temperature defines heat stroke?
• In a patient with symptomatic third-degree AV block and syncope, what is the definitive treatment?
• Which EKG finding is seen in pulmonary embolism?
• In systolic dysfunction heart failure, which drug class is contraindicated?
• Which feature is more typical of epididymitis than testicular torsion?
• Which of the following is a treatment for improving blood pressure in hypotension?
• According to CDC guidelines, what induration size is considered positive in HIV-positive individuals or those with HIV risk factors?
• What is the high-risk cutoff for the GRACE score in ACS risk stratification?
• In pediatric patients, which joint is the most commonly dislocated?
• For more severe bronchiolitis, which therapy may be added?
• Which cervical vertebrae innervate the diaphragm?
• What is the typical pain description for Acute Coronary Syndrome?
• Which treatment option is indicated for epiglottitis in an emergency setting?
• Which components make up Virchow's Triad associated with deep vein thrombosis?
• What is a standard initial pharmacologic approach to treating congestive heart failure?
• Which radiographic finding is most characteristic of a pericardial effusion?
• Which three medications are first-line therapy for hepatitis B?
• Volkmann's contracture is best described as which condition?
• A 19-year-old with psychosis uses made-up words and phrases. What type of verbal utterance is this?
• If a patient with deep vein thrombosis has active internal bleeding, uncontrolled hypertension, CNS tumor, recent trauma or surgery, or recurrent DVT despite anticoagulation, which alternative treatment should be considered?
• For stable patients with suspected traumatic aortic rupture, which imaging modality is commonly used for evaluation?
• Fracture of the proximal ulna with anterior dislocation of the radial head is known as which fracture?
• Which diagnosis is associated with vesiculopapular eruption over clothed areas in a hot environment?
• Which drug is associated with torsades de pointes?
• ______ is enlargement or dysfunction of the right ventricle due to pulmonary hypertension.
• For a hemodynamically unstable symptomatic complete heart block, which is the most immediate management option?
• Which fracture is a radial fracture with distal ulna dislocation?
• Which of the following is a SIRS criterion related to temperature?
• Which stool finding is most specific for occult blood testing in diarrhea?
• What is the best way to assess blood volume status in an acute setting?
• Which cardiac marker is reported as being most specific to heart muscle?
• Which of the following conditions can cause hypotonic hypervolemic hyponatremia?
• A patient on chronic corticosteroid therapy undergoing surgery is at risk of which acute crisis?
• In an elderly patient with postrenal azotemia, what is the most likely cause?
• Which pathogen is most commonly acquired from eating undercooked beef and can cause hemolytic uremic syndrome and thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura?
• What symptoms characterize a pulmonary embolism?
• Which of the following is listed as a diarrhea treatment in the material?
• In Class 3 hypovolemic shock, urine output is?
• What is a typical physical examination finding in acute pericarditis?
• Factitious hyponatremia is most commonly associated with which of the following?
• Cranial Nerves: Which option lists a correct pairing?
• tPA should be considered in ischemic stroke within how many hours of symptom onset?
• Hypertonic saline is indicated for severe hyponatremia when serum sodium falls below what threshold?
• Which virus most commonly causes bronchiolitis?
• Which biomarker is most sensitive for myocardial necrosis?
• Which statement best describes the clinical features of thyroid storm?
• What is the nonoperative method to decompress a sigmoid volvulus after diagnosis?
• Which bone fracture is most commonly associated with acute compartment syndrome?
• Renal tubular acidosis is best described as which type of metabolic acidosis?
• In the management of an unstable ankle sprain, which course is recommended?
• A 66-year-old woman presents with abdominal pain and distension. Imaging shows distended bowel loops with haustral markings. Which etiology is most likely the cause of this large bowel obstruction?
• A patient with biopsy-confirmed temporal arteritis should be treated with which agent as first-line therapy?
• Which statement best describes the imaging appearance of a greenstick fracture?
• Which ECG finding is associated with hypokalemia?
• Which of the following is an intrinsic cause of hemolysis?
• What EKG finding is commonly seen in dilated cardiomyopathy?
• In Class 2 hypovolemic shock, blood pressure is described as:
• Pediatric fever algorithm: for children aged 28 days to 3 months with fever ≥38°C, what is recommended?
• Which muscle is most commonly involved in a rotator cuff tear?
• What is the treatment for retinal detachment to correct the tear?
• In trauma, hyperresonance to percussion is most consistent with which diagnosis?
• A 23-year-old man presents with fever, sore throat, fatigue, myalgias, and a morbilliform rash. Rapid strep and Monospot tests are negative. Which prevention strategy should be recommended for this patient?
• In hypokalemia management, which is appropriate for a stable patient?
• A 55-year-old woman with atrial flutter and rheumatic mitral stenosis presents with dyspnea. Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy to prevent embolic stroke?
• Which test is used to detect Helicobacter pylori infection?
• A patient presents with immediate pain and paresthesias after a sting, a positive tap test, tachycardia, nausea/vomiting, roving eye movements, muscle spasms, vision impairment, and dysphagia. Dx and treatment?
• Which test most reliably confirms the causative organism in suspected herpes simplex virus encephalitis presenting with meningitis features?
• Under the Ottawa ankle rules, which finding warrants ankle radiographs?
• What is the name of complete rupture of the extensor tendon at the distal phalanx causing DIP flexion?
• What finding is typically seen on a peripheral blood smear in a patient with sickle cell disease experiencing a pain crisis?
• Which diastolic murmur heard along the left sternal border is most consistent with aortic regurgitation?
• Mallory-Weiss tears occur after retching and involve tears of the underlying which vascular structure?
• A patient presents with small grey vesicles and punched-out ulcers in the posterior pharynx. Which organism most likely causes this presentation?
• In a child with a minor closed head injury and brief loss of consciousness, which imaging modality is most appropriate for initial assessment?
• Which sign is classically associated with cardiac tamponade?
• What type of patient is contraindicated for prostate exam by DRE?
• What does chest X-ray show in a tension pneumothorax?
• Which medication is the treatment of choice for symptomatic patients with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
• Which of the following is a common cause of anion gap metabolic acidosis?
• TEN and SJS typically evolve after exposure to certain drugs or infections. If less than 10% of body is affected, it is aka ____. If greater than 30% of the body is affected, it is aka ____.
• In CRAO, the macula appears on exam as which of the following?
• What is the most common vector-borne zoonotic infection in the United States?
• According to Ottawa ankle rules, which of the following is a criterion prompting radiographs?
• Zig-zag lines of lesions with hemorrhagic puncta and intense itching are characteristic of which bite?
• Broca's area is primarily associated with which function?
• Which of the following is NOT among substances typically checked in known overdoses?
• Which scenario best describes hypotonic hypovolemic hyponatremia?
• What is the approximate mortality range for ARDS?
• An inflammation of the optic nerve presenting with acute vision loss and reduced color vision, with a swollen optic disc. The most likely diagnosis is:
• Which troponin subtype is typically measured in suspected MI?
• Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is most commonly due to hypertrophy of which structure, and which heart sound is commonly associated?
• Which of the following is the most common skin cancer?
• Which of the following is an ADP receptor blocker that inhibits platelet aggregation?
• In an unconscious patient with suspected overdose, in what order should you administer thiamine, glucose, and naloxone?
• What is the definitive treatment for pyloric stenosis?
• Which nerve and artery are commonly affected in humerus fractures?
• In a boxer fracture, which finding indicates referral for reduction in addition to angulation?
• What is the test of choice for suspected aortic dissection?
• Which sign is used to assess median nerve function?
• Bit by a snake with fang marks in the skin, pain, erythema, ecchymosis, edema extending from the bite, plus nausea/vomiting, perioral paresthesia, and lethargy. Which management step is indicated?
• A firm, painless vaginal ulcer is seen with which disease?
• For a child under 1 year with airway obstruction due to a foreign body, which maneuver is recommended first?
• Which organism is most commonly associated with infective endocarditis in intravenous drug users?
• Which CSF profile is most typical of viral meningitis?
• Which group is most likely to suffer mushroom poisoning?
• In Guillain-Barré, what is the typical direction of weakness on the body?
• Which of the following is NOT a component of the NEXUS criteria for clearing the cervical spine?
• For vascular access in moderate to major burns, what is the recommended approach?
• A blowing, musical murmur along the left sternal border is most consistent with which valve lesion?
• A 55-year-old woman with hypertension and two-vessel coronary artery bypass graft presents with increasing dyspnea and palpitations. EKG shows atrial flutter with 2:1 AV block and echocardiogram shows normal LV function. Which therapy is most appropriate?
• Vesicles or ulcers on the pharynx suggest which etiologic category?
• In anterior cord syndrome, which modalities are preserved?
• Tx for sickle cell crisis?
• Which EKG findings are classic in hypokalemia?
• A patient develops profuse watery diarrhea after shellfish consumption with dehydration. What is the most likely diagnosis and initial treatment?
• Which antibiotic is used to treat the ulceroglandular form of tularemia?
• What are the prehospital treatments for ACS?
• What is the door-to-needle time for fibrinolysis in acute myocardial infarction?
• Which drug is used to treat Schistosomiasis?
• What age group is most at risk to develop osteoid osteoma?
• Time to heal for a deep second-degree burn is typically:
• Which nerve is most commonly injured in mid- or distal humeral shaft fractures?
• Which test is essential to evaluating hemolytic anemia?
• Where should a patient with heat stroke be admitted for monitoring and treatment?
• Among HIV-associated neoplasms, which is most common?
• What potassium level defines hypokalemia?
• Which illness is caused by a virus from the Coltivirus genus?
• Which statement best reflects the initial management of an ACL injury in the emergency setting?
• Secondary hypertension is defined as hypertension due to an identifiable cause.
• What are the values for mild, moderate, and severe levels of the Glasgow Coma Scale?
• Which lab value is most likely elevated in a patient with acute cholecystitis and jaundice?
• Most thoracolumbar fractures are located between which vertebral levels?
• What is the most reliable clinical tool for confirming endotracheal intubation in an emergency?
• Which ankle-brachial index (ABI) range corresponds to claudication?
• Shigellosis is treated with which antibiotic?
• Which pathogen is most commonly associated with foodborne disease requiring hospitalization and death?
• An 18-year-old woman presents with fever, confusion, and a petechial rash. CSF analysis shows elevated WBCs, elevated protein, and decreased glucose. Which organism is most likely the cause of bacterial meningitis in this age group?
• Corneal abrasion is a superficial disruption of the corneal surface. Which treatment component should not be prescribed for home use due to impairment of healing?
• Bloody diarrhea and fever developing within 24-48 hours after eating contaminated food. Dx and tx.
• What are the 6 levels of motor response in the Glasgow Coma Scale?
• Lactated Ringer's solution is contraindicated in patients who are likely to have which condition?
• Which muscle is not considered part of the rotator cuff?
• What is generally the first imaging study for suspected testicular torsion?
• In suspected glaucoma, intraocular pressure is typically above which value?
• Which radiographic views are necessary for patellar fracture evaluation?
• Which medication is used to inhibit peripheral conversion of T4 to T3 in thyroid storm?
• Infective endocarditis is most commonly caused by which organisms?
• Which antibiotic is commonly used to treat chlamydia?
• In suspected Cerebral Arterial Gas Embolism after a scuba incident, which position is recommended for the patient?
• Which tick-borne illness is associated with fever, photophobia, and a petechial rash after tick exposure in the western United States mountains?
• In Class 3 hypovolemic shock, the pulse is greater than?
• Which finding would most strongly indicate necrotizing fasciitis rather than cellulitis?
• In acute pericarditis, the ECG changes are due to inflammation of which layer?
• Hyphema refers to blood in which part of the eye?
• What is the initial management step for suspected HIT?
• What is the primary management step in disseminated intravascular coagulation?
• A 21-year-old female with a cast on her arm develops extreme pain. Permanent muscle damage from compartment syndrome begins after how many hours of ischemia?
• Which of the following is a biomechanical factor contributing to patellofemoral syndrome?
• Exudates are characterized by which of the following?
• Which radiographic signs are classically described for pulmonary embolism on chest X-ray?
• Which spider has an antivenom that can be given for acute symptoms?
• According to CDC guidelines, what induration size is considered positive in all other cases?
• What is the typical prognosis of central cord syndrome?
• What is the net acid-base disturbance typically seen in salicylate overdose?
• A patient presents with splenomegaly, fatigue, and LAD. Pt reveals she has had a sore throat for 2 weeks. What might we see on a blood smear?
• Beclomethasone (Qvar) is which type of medication?
• The management of isopropyl alcohol ingestion is largely what?
• What is pathognomonic for a lightning strike injury?
• Which statement is NOT a component of a Maisonneuve fracture?
• Pain followed by erythematous papules in a unilateral dermatomal distribution that turns to vesicles and crusted.
• Which Hymenoptera reaction presents as a systemic anaphylactic reaction?
• In S1 radiculopathy, which reflex is decreased?
• Which antibiotic option is listed for septic shock management?
• Painless indurated genital ulcer on the genitals is most consistent with which diagnosis?
• Abrupt onset diarrhea with blood and mucous, fever, tenesmus, malaise. Dx and tx.
• A 20-month-old with fever and a brief generalized seizure; which description best fits this event?
• Which of the following is part of the PRICE approach for sprains?
• Desmopressin can shorten bleeding time in bleeding disorders due to which conditions?
• Which Le Fort fracture describes craniofacial disjunction with the entire face separated from the skull?
• What are the imaging modalities of choice for suspected cholecystitis and appendicitis, respectively?
• In diving, the most common form of barotrauma occurs during which phase?
• Charcot-Leyden crystals are associated with which condition?
• Which pulse finding is classically associated with aortic regurgitation?
• Observation alone can be used as the primary management strategy in pediatric head injury when which condition is present?
• Which statement best describes a Maisonneuve fracture?
• Which statement best describes Brown Recluse spider bite management?
• In a patient with suspected acute anemia presenting with instability, what is the initial management step?
• Mycoplasma pneumoniae most commonly affects which age group?
• Which protozoan is a principal agent of traveler's diarrhea?
• Partial flexion at the PIP joint with extension at the DIP joint is characteristic of which finger deformity?
• In a patient older than 50 with back pain, which condition is a high‑priority life-threatening concern?
• Which therapy is controversial and not routinely recommended for spine injuries?
• Infant with sunken fontanelles, decreased capillary refill, no tears, and few wet diapers most likely has dehydration; which IV fluid is indicated?
• Vaginitis with intense vaginal pruritus, malodorous yellow-green discharge, and urethritis is most consistent with which infection?
• Ranson criteria are used to predict mortality in which condition?
• What nerve injury is associated with an acetabulum fracture?
• Very high triglycerides are associated with an increased risk of pancreatitis. Which lipid category is most closely linked?
• Which Hymenoptera reaction is characterized by a delayed reaction days after stinging?
• Which radiographic signs on abdominal X-ray are associated with pancreatitis?
• Hepatitis D must you have co-infection with which hepatitis?
• If a patient has a cough on ACE inhibitors, which medication class should be used instead?
• In adults, which joints are dislocated more frequently than the elbow?
• According to the Duke criteria, which finding is a major criterion for infective endocarditis?
• Erythematous pharynx, enlarged tonsils, and yellow-white exudate suggest infection with which organism?
• Austin-Flint murmur is typically seen with which valve lesion?
• Chest radiographic pattern is most typical for Mycoplasma pneumonia?
• Which burn depth is characterized by pink blisters and involves the epidermis and upper dermis?
• What radiographic sign is commonly seen on AP and lateral neck radiographs in croup?
• What is the antidote for digoxin toxicity?
• An adult woman has a witnessed generalized seizure with tongue biting and urinary incontinence, followed by a postictal state. The most likely etiology is?
• The fasciotomy should be performed within how many hours to prevent irreversible damage in compartment syndrome?
• Which laboratory finding is commonly elevated in acute pulmonary embolism and used in initial assessment?
• In cardiac tamponade, which of the following is an emergent management step?
• Gonococcal urethritis typically presents with what symptom?
• A 14-year-old boy presents with acute scrotal pain after gym class. Which diagnosis is most likely?
• Hypernatremia is defined as serum sodium above what level?
• Which of the following is a major criterion in the Duke criteria for diagnosing infective endocarditis?
• Which description of synovial fluid is most consistent with septic arthritis?
• Temporary loss of reflexes after trauma to the spine is diagnosed as what?
• Which long bone is the most commonly fractured in the body?
• In a 2-year-old with fever and a brief generalized seizure lasting less than 15 minutes, which diagnosis is most likely?
• Fresh water exposure with maculopapular dermatitis on the lower legs that itches, followed by fever, urticaria, headache, and eosinophilia. Which disease is most likely?
• Which antiviral medication is commonly used to treat genital herpes infections?
• What is the most common cause of true hyperkalemia?
• A Colles fracture is best described as a distal radius fracture with which deformity?
• A 54-year-old man presents with crampy abdominal pain and vomiting; not passed gas or stool for 10 hours. Abdomen distends; cecal distension to 12 cm. What is the most appropriate definitive management?
• Hypercalcemia is treated with which of the following as initial therapy?
• In Class 4 hypovolemic shock, the pulse is greater than?
• Which description best matches the typical pain of pancreatitis?
• A patient presents to the ER after pituitary surgery with polyuria and polydipsia; what is the diagnosis?
• Systemic corticosteroids can have what negative effect on the eye?
• Which electrolyte imbalance commonly presents with N/V, weakness, headache, agitation, and possible seizures?
• In IV drug users with endocarditis, which valve is most commonly affected?
• Which cancer is NOT typically a vertebral metastasis?
• According to the American Heart Association, the tPA window can be expanded up to how many hours?
• For severe high altitude illness, which combination of medications is recommended?
• Which congenital heart disease is classically associated with cyanosis due to a right-to-left shunt?
• To confirm tinea infections such as tinea barbae, which diagnostic test is commonly used?
• Which valve lesion is typically associated with a murmur best heard at the base of the heart and radiating to the neck?
• Which therapy lowers potassium by shifting it into cells?
• What is the most common pathogen for foodborne disease?
• A Burst fracture involves compression of which vertebral columns?
• What is the most reliable test to diagnose carbon monoxide poisoning?
• In epididymitis among men over 40, the usual pathogens are from which category?
• The classic triad of symptoms for a valvular disease is abbreviated ASH. Which three features are included?
• In overdose decontamination, which method is most commonly used?
• Which treatment is the treatment of choice for salicylate overdose?
• What are the top four causes of syncope in order?
• Hot water immersion is recommended for which marine injuries?
• Chancroid is most commonly caused by which organism?
• What EKG finding is pathognomonic for hypothermia?
• When calcium is low, PTH increases and leads to what effect on bone and renal calcium handling?
• Erysipelas is characterized by infection of the dermis with lymphatic involvement and raised margins; which antibiotic regimen is commonly used?
• A 16-year-old male soccer player complains of right-foot pain that worsens with weight bearing, especially when planting to kick the ball. Which bone is most commonly affected by a stress fracture in this scenario?
• Abscess management after incision and drainage: which statement describes when antibiotics are necessary?
• What is the best chance for long-term survival in aplastic anemia?
• Pulsus paradoxus is most commonly associated with which condition?
• On a lateral neck radiograph, which sign is classically associated with epiglottitis?
• Class I hypovolemic shock is characterized by which of the following?
• Which regimen is an appropriate treatment for erysipelas?
• Which staining method is used to identify Plasmodium on a blood smear?
• Which heat stroke type is associated with respiratory alkalosis?
• In Class 3 hypovolemic shock, the respiratory rate is?
• In a known drug overdose, clinicians commonly check serum levels of which three substances?
• What is a recommended initial management step for hypothermia?
• Which radiographic combination is considered standard for patellar fracture evaluation?
• Asthma or COPD: which antihypertensive should be avoided?
• What is the first-line management step for contact dermatitis?
• Pneumonia pathogens have characteristic radiographic patterns. Which pattern is associated with Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia in AIDS patients?
• What is the antidote for acetaminophen toxicity?
• If hyponatremia is corrected too quickly, what neurologic complication can occur?
• What is the leading cause of blindness in HIV patients?
• What are the most reliable measures of dehydration?
• Which description best fits a local reaction to Hymenoptera stings?
• In ocular chemical burns, what is the initial management step?
• Which of the following is NOT a criterion of the PERC rule for ruling out pulmonary embolism?
• Which disease presents with high fever then defervescence followed by a maculopapular rash and is associated with HHV-6?
• Which statement is true about meningitis signs such as Kernig and Brudzinski?
• What is the initial management step for a confirmed lunate dislocation?
• What are the two forms of diabetes insipidus?
• What anion gap value defines primary anion gap metabolic acidosis?
• Which radiographic sign is associated with pancreatitis on X-ray, as mentioned in the material?
• What is the most common cause of death after a lightning strike?
• What chest radiograph finding is typical of emphysema?
• For gonorrhea and chlamydia coinfection, which regimen is recommended?
• ST elevations in V1, V2, V3 indicate which MI and artery?
• Which agent and combination is listed as the agent of choice for lowering BP in hypertensive encephalopathy, intracranial bleeding, and heart failure, with consideration for dissecting aneurysm?
• In the Glasgow Coma Scale, which Verbal score corresponds to inappropriate words?
• Which electrolyte levels should be monitored to avoid digoxin toxicity in a heart failure patient?
• In an elderly patient on chronic steroids presenting with a subacute meningitis picture (headache, neck stiffness, photophobia) but afebrile, which diagnosis is most likely?
• Calcium channel blocker overdose typically presents with which effect on blood sugar?
• Which antiviral is used to treat herpes simplex encephalitis?
• Kussmaul sign is seen in which condition?
• What is the initial management for hypercalcemia?
• Which metronidazole regimen is recommended for Trichomoniasis?
• Which medication may help to reduce intraocular pressure in central retinal artery occlusion?
• Which vasopressor is commonly used for hypotension in cardiogenic shock?
• What is the most common ankle sprain?
• Which factors are associated with increased risk of death from a major burn?
• Which statement best defines malignant hypertension?
• What is the most common clinical finding on vital signs in cardiogenic shock?
• Which antibiotic is paired with cefazolin for open fracture prophylaxis?
• An early systolic opening click followed by a systolic ejection murmur radiating to the base is characteristic of which lesion?
• A 45-year-old man presents with hematemesis and melena; he has NSAID use and alcohol; an NG tube yields bright red blood that does not clear with saline. What is the next best step in management?
• An older patient presents to the ER with recurrent syncope and a completely unremarkable cardiac workup. Which diagnosis should be considered as a likely cause?
• Which statement best describes initial management of metabolic acidosis?
• Erythema on the thighs and buttocks with an annular scaly edge is characteristic of which condition?
• Which knee structure is most likely injured in an anterior cruciate ligament tear during a non-contact pivoting injury?
• Which illness presents with abrupt onset of fever, chills, headache, myalgia, malaise, sore throat, and bilateral tender cervical lymph nodes?
• Subacute back pain duration is defined as pain lasting between which weeks?
• Osler nodes and Janeway lesions are clinical clues to which condition?
• Which organism most commonly causes erysipelas?
• Which vaccine has dropped the incidence of epiglottitis?
• Which mnemonic is used to remember the signs of arterial insufficiency?
• Which of the following is NOT a symptom of late hypothermia?
• Which group is at the highest risk for nonexertional heat stroke?
• A sexually active woman presents with lower abdominal pain, mucopurulent vaginal discharge, and cervicitis. The most likely diagnosis is:
• Which spider bite is classically associated with a painless bite that can progress to a necrotic eschar?
• A 36-year-old man with a pattern of disregard for others, impulsivity, and repeated legal problems is most consistent with which personality disorder?
• Which organism produces a clinic syndrome similar to appendicitis and is spread via the fecal-oral route?
• Flumazenil is used to reverse acute benzodiazepine overdose in patients who do not have risk of seizure. True or False?
• Pyelonephritis presenting with fever and costovertebral angle tenderness is commonly treated with which regimen for 2 weeks?
• No nitroglycerin in which kind of MI?
• A 15-year-old boy collapses during a basketball game. What is the most likely etiology of sudden death in this adolescent?
• Which diagnostic study would be most useful in establishing a diagnosis of infective endocarditis in a patient with S. aureus bacteremia?
• Which diagnosis corresponds to mild swelling of the hands and feet after exposure to a hot environment?
• In Class 2 hypovolemic shock, the pulse is greater than which value?
• In suspected necrotizing fasciitis, which antibiotic combination provides broad-spectrum coverage appropriate for initial empiric therapy?
• A patient has lethargy, headache, and a hyperdense crescent-shaped lesion on CT scan. Diagnosis?
• Sensory testing for the radial nerve includes which area?
• Restrictive cardiomyopathy is most often caused by which type of process?
• In a strain, which tissues are injured?
• A 64-year-old patient with recurrent syncope and a completely unremarkable cardiac workup. Which diagnosis should be considered as a likely cause?
• Pathologically, dilation of air spaces distal to the terminal bronchiole with destruction of the interalveolar septa describes which condition?
• Hip dislocations are often associated with which fracture?
• Which heart disease presents with an opening snap in early diastole and a soft diastolic rumble heard at the apex in the left lateral decubitus position?
• Which urinalysis finding is typical of glomerulonephritis?
• Which fracture is a transverse fracture of the diaphyseal region at the base of the fifth metatarsal?
• What are the classic symptoms of aortic stenosis?
• What nerve injury is associated with a femoral shaft or lateral tibial plateau fracture?
• Friction rub is most likely heard in which condition?
• The 'Spilled teacup sign' on a lateral X-ray of the wrist indicates which dislocation?
• In dermatitis management, the primary treatment focus is to
• Which rotator cuff muscle is most commonly injured?
• Mastitis in lactating women can be complicated by what, which would require incision and drainage?
• Stanford type B aortic dissection is primarily managed with what?
• Deficiency in factor IX is associated with which disorder?
• Greasy yellow scales on the chest and face are most consistent with which condition?
• Which of the following is NOT a recognized component of the standard shock definition?
• A 46-year-old woman presents with wrist pain and a jelly-like bump on the dorsum of the wrist. What is the most likely diagnosis?
• During a shoulder dislocation, which nerve is most at risk of injury?
• Pain, swelling, tenderness, ecchymosis, and crepitus around the shoulder in an elderly patient after a fall most likely indicates which diagnosis?
• Which of the following is NOT a listed cause of hypothermia?
• In a patient with gastritis presenting with hematemesis, which test is most sensitive for diagnosing the condition?
• Which combination of signs characterizes a tension pneumothorax?
• Which fracture is a fracture/dislocation of the atlas and axis caused by extreme hyperextension during abrupt deceleration?
• What is a treatment option for severe hypermagnesemia?
• Dicloxacillin prophylaxis for patients at high risk of endocarditis is indicated for which procedure?
• A sprain involves injury to which connective tissues?
• Name one scoring system that begins with the letter H and is used to guide ACS treatment.
• What is the definitive treatment for constrictive pericarditis?
• In the described case of unknown drug use and fever, why is a urine drug screen not the most helpful diagnostic test?
• Which electrocardiographic finding is associated with digoxin toxicity?
• A purulent skin lesion after a spider bite is most likely caused by which organism?
• Rusty sputum pneumonia is most commonly caused by which organism?
• A bundle branch block may develop after acute myocardial infarction, pulmonary embolism, or aortic stenosis and is due to a conduction delay in the right or left bundle branches. Which finding describes this condition?
• Osteomyelitis is most commonly caused by which organism?
• In Hymenoptera stings, which option best describes initial management to remove venom and prevent progression of symptoms?
• Which structures can sense pain in the brain?
• The most common intracranial aneurysm is a berry aneurysm located in which vascular territory?
• For central diabetes insipidus, what is the first-line pharmacologic treatment?
• What are the three phases of Lyme disease?
• After successful conversion from a narrow complex SVT, which medication may be used for rhythm control?
• In managing atrial flutter, which drug would be most appropriate if pressor support is required rather than rate control or rhythm conversion?
• What is the most reliable sign of compartment syndrome?
• Which syndrome injures the anterior aspect of the spinal cord causing paralysis and loss of pain and temperature with preserved position sense?
• Aspiration yields yellow, transparent fluid with 200–2000 WBCs and less than 25% PMNs. This fluid is best classified as:
• What is the initial management step for suspected tension pneumothorax?
• Intense perianal itching in a child. Which infection is most likely?
• Which should NEVER be used in the treatment of cocaine-associated chest pain?
• Which statement correctly describes Type 2 pelvic fracture?
• Which anatomical structures most often explain periumbilical abdominal pain?
• A sexually active man presents with dysuria and purulent penile discharge. What is the most likely diagnosis?
• What is an appropriate initial management step for vasovagal syncope?
• In a patient actively seizing, which is the first-line parenteral medication to administer?
• Which condition is classically associated with simultaneous bleeding and thrombosis?
• Acute back pain is defined as pain lasting less than how many weeks?
• A scuba diver ascends and experiences truncal constriction (a feeling of tight around the chest) and ascending paralysis. What is the diagnosis and initial treatment?
• Which of the following is a hallmark feature of heat stroke?
• Left-sided heart failure contributes to pleural effusions by increasing hydrostatic pressure, producing which type of effusion?
• Cerebral perfusion pressure is calculated as MAP minus ICP. Brain ischemia occurs when CPP falls below what value?
• What is the appropriate management for a septal hematoma once identified?
• Which fracture is the fracture of the anterolateral aspect of the distal tibia in adolescents before complete closure of the epiphysis?
• Which diagnosis is most likely given immediate pinprick sensation after a spider bite with a target-shaped lesion at the bite site, muscle cramps, tachycardia, and nausea/vomiting?
• In aplastic anemia, transfusing red blood cells in small volumes over several hours can help prevent complications; giving units too rapidly can lead to which complication?
• Which drug is used to treat Trypanosoma cruzi infection (Chagas disease)?
• Which hepatitis can become chronic?
• An elderly patient with a hot, swollen knee aspirated; which bacterial organism is most likely septic arthritis?
• A 76-year-old man with dyspnea and signs of congestive heart failure would most likely have which abdominal finding due to hepatic congestion?
• What is an appropriate first-line antibiotic treatment for gonorrhea?
• Which of the following is a step in the initial treatment of hyperkalemia?
• Laryngotracheal foreign body aspiration presents with which signs?
• Cryptosporidiosis treatment includes which option for certain patients?
• Aspiration of a joint yields clear, transparent fluid with fewer than 200 WBCs and less than 25% PMNs. What is the most likely diagnosis?
• Which of the following is a hypercoagulable state associated with increased risk of DVT?
• Which description corresponds to a fracture that is 50% displaced in the distal metaphysis?
• Mitral stenosis is best heard when the patient is in which position?
• Which pattern of fetal heart rate deceleration begins and ends with the contraction?
• What are the most common causes of cardiomyopathy?
• In unstable hypokalemia, what is the recommended route for replacement?
• For von Willebrand disease Type 2 or Type 3, which product can be used?
• How long after a myocardial infarction can CK-MB and troponin I elevations be detected according to the source?
• Which fracture is a distal radius fracture with volar displacement, due to a fall on the back of the hand?
• A 62-year-old patient presents with a unilateral pupil size difference. Which diagnostic test is most likely to identify the cause?
• Which physical sign would confirm opioid intoxication?
• Greenstick fractures occur almost exclusively in which population?
• Pulmonary ______ occurs when resistance to flow across the pulmonary vasculature increases.
• Recent travel with fever, cough, abdominal pain, constipation, prostration, bradycardia followed by rose spots on trunk.
• Nitroglycerin may provide relief in which conditions?
• Patients with branch retinal artery occlusion and central retinal vein occlusion present with which classic physical exam finding?
• In atrial flutter, which medication is useful for chronic atrial flutter heart rate management or for maintaining sinus rhythm after cardioversion?
• In a patient with insomnia and tachycardia, which diagnosis is most likely and which lab finding would confirm it?
• With knee ligamentous injuries -- which ligament is not usually treated with surgery?
• Which is a common cause of neurogenic shock?
• A 55-year-old man experiences sudden unilateral facial numbness and right hand numbness with mild word-finding difficulty. What is the most likely etiology?
• In the initial assessment of blunt abdominal trauma in a hemodynamically unstable patient, which diagnostic test is most appropriate to perform first?
• An elderly patient with progressive dyspnea, edema, decreased preload and clear lungs with a loud S2 most likely has which condition?
• Which electrolyte disturbance presents with polydipsia, irritability, tremulousness, ataxia, and lethargy?
• A 3-year-old with abrupt onset focal wheezing localized to the right lower lobe; most likely diagnosis?
• In a trauma patient with suspected cardiac tamponade presenting with hypotension, JVD, and muffled heart sounds, what is the most appropriate first-line management?
• Which fracture is an ulna shaft fracture with proximal radius dislocation?
• A painless lump on the wrist that recurs is most consistent with which diagnosis?
• In a HIV-positive patient with diffuse ST elevations and chest pain, which exam finding is most likely?
• In pit viper envenomation, what coagulation abnormality may be observed?
• Which antibiotic is appropriate for suspected Vibrio infection from a marine wound?
• For a diabetic foot ulcer that is limb- or life-threatening with fever, ischemic changes, and lymphangitis, which management step is indicated?
• Which regimen is recommended for infective endocarditis in patients who are intravenous drug users?
• An avulsion fracture at the base of the fifth metatarsal is commonly called which fracture?
• Nerve injury most commonly associated with a humeral shaft fracture?
• A patient with normal peripheral pulses, edema, and medial leg ulcers most likely has which condition?
• How long does tissue necrosis take after a high‑pressure pinpoint entry of a foreign body?
• Which statement about typhoid fever matches the described clinical picture?
• What is the most common condition associated with acute lung injury and ARDS?
• Tetralogy of Fallot has which associated symptom?
• Which viral exanthem presents with Koplik's spots, cough, coryza, conjunctivitis, and a macular rash that begins at the head and progresses downward?
• Which is the leading cause of lost work time and disability for people under age 45?
• Treatment of torsades de pointes in a patient on procainamide is which of the following?
• Which cranial nerve is responsible for facial sensation?
• Pulmonary embolism: which of the following is part of initial management?
• Which medication is commonly used to treat CMV retinitis?
• Which statement correctly describes Type 1 pelvic fracture?
• Which hemorrhage is associated with thunderclap headache and stiff neck due to aneurysm rupture?
• Which of the following is a cardiac effect of malignant hypertension?
• Which of the following is NOT part of the classic pentad of Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura?
• Stevens-Johnson syndrome requires admission to which level of care?
• What is the recommended acute treatment for a narrow complex supraventricular tachycardia?
• Which physical exam findings are most indicative of myocardial infarction?
• What is the normal arterial range for PaCO2?
• Which mechanism is NOT associated with a wedge fracture?
• Which is a fracture-dislocation of the tarsometatarsal joint?
• Which of the following is a common CNS complication of infective endocarditis?
• Multifocal atrial tachycardia is most commonly associated with which condition?
• Among structural causes of syncope, which is most common in the elderly population?
• Tachycardia, hypotension, and acute abdominal tenderness after abdominal trauma indicate what kind of injury?
• A patient has a fixed dilated pupil on the right, left-sided weakness after head trauma, and a biconvex lesion on CT. Diagnosis?
• Which of the following lists the components of the Primary Survey in trauma care?
• What is the most common cause of acute adrenal insufficiency?
• Patients with anaphylaxis should first have a patent airway. What medications are involved in treatment?
• What is the most common first symptom of restrictive cardiomyopathy?
• Which drug class places a person at high risk for Achilles tendon injury?
• In a patient with myxedema coma, which action is essential in the initial management?
• Which condition presents with severe pain out of proportion, heaviness, brown skin discoloration, malodorous discharge, crepitus, and low-grade fever?
• Which treatment option is used for genital warts?
• Which of the following is NOT a symptom of early hypothermia?
• Which heart valve is most commonly affected by infective endocarditis?
• Wernicke's area is primarily associated with language comprehension and is located in which lobe?
• What is the most common cause of hypocalcemia?
• An 8-month-old with RSV bronchiolitis; which finding most strongly indicates a need for hospital admission and continued monitoring?
• In a hypoglycemic diabetic patient with confusion and sweating, what is the most appropriate initial treatment?
• Hyponatremia is defined as a serum sodium concentration below which value?
• Dengue fever management?
• Which antibiotic option is appropriate for outpatient management of a non-limb-threatening diabetic foot ulcer?
• Which two diagnostic tools are used to rule out an ectopic pregnancy?
• What is the definitive treatment for testicular torsion?
• Koilonychia (spoon nails), pallor, and cheilosis are characteristic of which condition?
• What is the recommended initial management for Stevens-Johnson syndrome according to the material?
• Pediatric fever algorithm: for children aged 91 days to 3 years who are non-toxic appearing with fever ≥39°C and fully immunized, what is recommended?
• Electrocardiography in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy typically shows which finding?
• Lateral neck radiography showing prevertebral soft-tissue swelling with forward displacement of the esophagus and trachea is most consistent with which condition?
• What imaging modality is described as the imaging gold standard for stroke evaluation?
• What is the most common etiologic organism causing spinal infection?
• What is the recommended management for Monteggia fracture?
• Which organism is responsible for Streptococcal Toxic Shock Syndrome?
• Yellow fever virus family?
• Which is the most common type of anthrax?
• Which symptom is typical of pericarditis?
• A Hill-Sachs lesion is best described as which of the following?
• A patient with progressive fatigue, abdominal pain, weight loss, vomiting, and hyperpigmented skin folds is most suggestive of which endocrine disorder?
• In thyroid storm, which medication is used to inhibit thyroid hormone synthesis and peripheral conversion?
• Which condition is defined by excess mucus production and a productive cough for at least 3 months per year for two consecutive years?
• In atrial flutter, which treatment is pursued if there are no contraindications?
• Which laboratory finding would most directly indicate anemia?
• Which test is the most sensitive for ACL injuries?
• Mastoiditis is a rare complication of otitis media. Typical treatment duration is:
• Which adjunct therapy is used in pediatric diabetic ketoacidosis to reduce the risk of cerebral edema?
• Which disease presents with an erythematous plaque at the tick bite site and painful regional lymphadenopathy (ulceroglandular form)?
• A 16-year-old with knee abrasion; last DTaP booster was at age 4. Which tetanus prophylaxis plan is MOST appropriate?
• What is the classic triad of symptoms for pulmonary embolism?
• Which organism is commonly associated with contamination of eggs, dairy products, or poultry?
• Which regimen is recommended for treatment of gonorrhea and chlamydia co-infection?
• Two of the most important risk factors in the development of stress gastritis are coagulopathy and respiratory failure. Which choice would indicate coagulopathy?
• Jefferson fracture refers to fracture of which vertebra?
• Which anti-secretory agent is listed for diarrhea management in the material?
• Infectious presentation with posterior pharyngeal ulcers and vesicles is most suggestive of which virus?
• Which radiographic sign on a chest X-ray indicates a pleural effusion?
• Causative vector for West Nile Virus?
• In an elderly man with syncope and a systolic murmur consistent with aortic stenosis, which test is most appropriate next?
• What condition is defined by the presence of endometrial tissue outside the endometrial cavity, with symptoms such as dyspareunia, infertility, abnormal bleeding, and chronic pelvic pain?
• Beclomethasone (Qvar) is what type of drug?
• What is the recommended management for Galeazzi fracture?
• Inflammatory plaques and follicular pustules in the beard area are most consistent with which diagnosis?
• Initial heart failure management commonly includes which combination?
• Which disease is managed with supportive care only?
• Bradycardia and hypotension following trauma to the spine indicate which condition?
• A posterior hip dislocation typically presents with which limb position?
• An indirect inguinal hernia is explained by which description?
• What is the initial treatment for an acute episode of supraventricular tachycardia in a hemodynamically stable patient?
• RMSF is caused by which organism?
• Which of the following is a cause of hypovolemic shock?
• Which of the following is a common cause of hypotonic euvolemic hyponatremia?
• Which disease is characterized by hydrophobia and rapidly progressive encephalitis following exposure?
• In hemolytic anemia, which laboratory value is typically decreased?
• In a high ankle sprain, which ligament is injured?
• First-line antibiotic for acute sinusitis is Augmentin 1000/62.5 for 7-10 days.
• Which statement correctly describes Type 4 pelvic fracture?
• Which pair of organisms are most commonly implicated as etiologic agents for bacterial meningitis in young adults living in dormitories?
• Which symptoms are commonly associated with cardiomyopathy?
• What is the antibiotic prophylaxis for open fractures?
• In epididymitis among men under 40, the usual pathogens are from which category?
• A comminuted intra-articular fracture through the base of the first metacarpal (base of the thumb) is known as which fracture?
• Which sign is defined by pain on dorsiflexion of the foot and is classically used in evaluating deep vein thrombosis?
• Which of the following is a nonanion gap metabolic acidosis cause?
• Honey-colored crusts are characteristic of impetigo most commonly caused by which organism?
• Which of the following is a contraindication to placing a nasogastric tube?
• In S1 radiculopathy, which area of sensation is affected?
• What is the primary treatment for pregnancy-induced hypertension in the acute setting?
• Which bacterium is typically detected by rapid strep testing in pharyngitis?
• Which finding is NOT part of Beck's triad in cardiac tamponade?
• Which nerve is primarily responsible for motor function to the iliopsoas and for L1-L3 dermatomes?
• Hypertensive emergency with encephalopathy: which finding would you expect on examination?
• If bradyarrhythmias are not responsive to atropine, what additional management should be considered?
• Outdoor exposure followed by intense pruritus near waistbands with papules enlarging to nodules over a couple days. Diagnosis and initial management?
• Which imaging study is considered the gold standard for aortic dissection but is the most invasive radiographic study?
• What is the Rule of the Nines proportion for the head in burn injuries?
• What is the most severe tick-borne disease in the US?
• Which of the following is included in the PERC rule to rule out the need for further imaging in suspected PE?
• An elderly patient with a swollen knee and prior effusion has synovial fluid demonstrating calcium pyrophosphate crystals. What is the most likely diagnosis?
• In a patient with chest pain where MI is ruled out, which history clue might suggest GI-induced chest pain?
• For peripheral artery disease, which therapeutic measures are commonly used?
• What is the most common injury leading to septic shock?
• A 24-year-old male has had two syncopal episodes in the last 3 years, both during exercise of the right arm. What is the likely cause?
• In counseling a rape survivor on next steps, which is most critical to improve prognosis?
• Which organism is involved in Toxic Shock Syndrome?
• Which two medications are commonly used to treat alcohol withdrawal in the emergency department?
• What is the recommended action if there is no improvement after four months of hepatitis B treatment?
• In a patient with atrial flutter and 2:1 AV conduction, which antiarrhythmic is contraindicated due to the risk of 1:1 AV conduction and potential hemodynamic collapse?
• In septic shock, which is a key initial therapy?
• Which sign may accompany pulmonary embolism?
• Which test detects PROM by measuring the pH of amniotic fluid and is alkaline when PROM is present?
• If epistaxis does not respond to anterior packing, which type of epistaxis should be suspected?
• Which statement about shock and its hemodynamic changes is true?
• What is the treatment for tension pneumothorax?
• Open or complex tibial fractures are sometimes associated with which complication?
• Which of the following best describes the treatment for thyroid storm?
• What is the most common fracture-dislocation of the wrist joint?
• Osteomyelitis in adult intravenous drug abusers most commonly affects which bones?
• Stones less than how many millimeters have about 90% chance of passing spontaneously?
• What is the most common identifiable cause of dilated cardiomyopathy?
• Activated charcoal is generally not effective for which toxin categories?
• Which analgesic should be avoided for pain in splenic rupture according to the material?
• In Class 3 hypovolemic shock, blood volume lost is between which percent?
• Pharyngitis with pharyngeal exudates suggests which etiologic category?
• For a patient with generalized convulsive status epilepticus, the initial intravenous treatment is which drug?
• A 48-year-old man experiences loss of consciousness followed by muscle rigidity and rhythmic contractions, then returns to a normal state. Approximately 6 hours later, he suffers a second episode. Which medication is he most likely taking?
• What is the most commonly used anticoagulant therapy in the US?
• A 4-year-old child ingested a substance found in a purse, causing vomiting and abdominal pain. Which medication is most likely involved?
• A Colles fracture typically involves which direction of the distal fragment's tilt?
• Which finding would confirm a diaphragmatic injury following trauma?
• Which condition is a serious complication of sexually transmitted infections with increased risk of infertility and ectopic pregnancy, presenting with lower abdominal tenderness, chandelier's sign, and purulent cervical discharge?
• Bullous pemphigoid is best described as which of the following?
• Which combination is most suggestive of pulmonary embolism in the appropriate setting?
• Erythema multiforme that involves mucous membranes is known as which condition?
• Which drug is used to treat Leishmaniasis?
• Conjunctival congestion suggests which etiologic agent in pharyngitis?
• Which laboratory finding is characteristic of nephrotic syndrome?
• What is the recommended splinting position for mallet finger?
• In patients with NSTEMI and elevated troponins, which initial therapy is recommended before coronary catheterization?
• An elderly patient with rectal fecal impaction presents with cramping and rectal pain; which is the initial therapy?
• Which distal radius fracture is defined by volar (palmar) angulation of the distal radius fragment?
• A teenage girl presents with polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, and a high plasma glucose with metabolic acidosis. The most likely diagnosis is which of the following?
• Obstruction in pediatric foreign body aspiration is most common in which airway?
• Trousseau sign is best described as what?
• What are the treatments for bradyarrhythmias?
• Permanent neuronal injury can ensue within how many minutes of continuous seizure activity, even in the absence of apparent convulsions?
• Tx for frostbite?
• A patient presents with left upper quadrant pain and imaging shows intraperitoneal blood with rebound tenderness. What is the suspected diagnosis?
• Which is a critical component of management for epiglottitis?
• For suspected spinal epidural abscess, which imaging modality is preferred for diagnosis?
• Tender papule that evolves into a painful purulent ulcer with unilateral inguinal adenopathy is most consistent with which diagnosis?
• How are burns categorized?
• For a patient with prior myocardial infarction, which medications are listed as the drug of choice?
• How long does it take before Lyme disease can be transmitted from a tick to a person?
• CSF findings in herpes simplex encephalitis typically include which of the following?
• Which examination tests radial nerve function?
• Which COPD phenotype is described as 'pink puffer'?
• Which statement expands the SLUDGE mnemonic used for organophosphate poisoning symptoms?
• Among risk factors for stress fractures in athletes, which factor is associated with osteopenia and increased fracture risk, particularly in female athletes?
• In a cat or dog bite, which organism is most commonly involved?
• In suspected acute epiglottitis, which diagnostic test is indicated to assess airway risk?
• For acute sinusitis, antibiotics should not be started until at least how many days have passed since onset?
• Which infection is commonly associated with precipitating erythema multiforme?
• Which regimen is recommended for Trichomoniasis treatment in a single dose?
• If hypertonic saline is given too rapidly for acute hyponatremia, which complication may occur?
• Abdominal pain, severe anemia, and red burrows underneath the skin are characteristic of which infection?
• In a patient with cirrhosis presenting with massive hematemesis, the most likely source is which condition?
• A scuba diver has hearing loss, tinnitus, vertigo, and a positive fistula test. What is the diagnosis and initial management?
• Which of the following is a cause of hypocalcemia?
• Transudates occur when systemic factors that control formation and absorption of pleural fluid are altered.
• Which dermatosis presents with erythematous plaques with silvery scales, well-marginated, often with nail pitting?
• Which condition features pruritus, tightening of the skin, flaking and scaling, and low-grade fever?
• Hypotension is defined as a systolic blood pressure less than what value, or a drop from baseline by more than 30 mmHg?
• What measure may be helpful before using adenosine for paroxysmal SVT?
• Infective endocarditis, which finding confirms the diagnosis as a minor criterion per Duke criteria?
• The most common enzymopathy of red blood cells is which deficiency?
• Which nerve root primarily innervates the anterior tibialis muscle?
• Biot breathing is most commonly seen in which condition?
• What is a characteristic diagnostic finding for Trichomonas vaginalis infection?
• Which natriuretic peptide is released from the ventricles in response to increased wall tension?
• In the NYHA functional classification, which class corresponds to no limitation of activity with ordinary activity?
• Which symptoms are commonly associated with digoxin toxicity in heart failure patients?
• Which valvular heart disease is most commonly associated with syncope?
• In patients with chest pain, a history of dyspnea is associated with what relative increase in mortality?
• What is the recommended timeframe for gastric decontamination by emesis or lavage after ingestion?
• ST elevations in leads II, III, and aVF indicate infarction in which territory and artery?
• In evaluating acid-base disorders, what is the first step?
• Which burn depth is described as pink hemorrhagic markings that involve the epidermis and dermis, are moist and painful?
• Which statement best defines the pain duration categories: acute, subacute, and chronic?
• What is the most common cause of acute bronchitis?
• Which topical antifungal is listed for the treatment of tinea pedis, manuum, cruris, and corporis?
• What nerve injury is associated with a sacral fracture?
• A 66-year-old man with hypertension presents with sudden tearing chest and back pain, hypotension, and a diastolic murmur best heard at the base. What is the most likely diagnosis?
• In Class 4 hypovolemic shock, blood volume lost is?
• What is the most common cause of hypokalemia?
• In the Glasgow Coma Scale, which description corresponds to an Eye Opening score of 3?
• In sexually active adolescents, which organism is a common cause of septic arthritis?
• Rhinorrhea in pharyngitis suggests which etiologic category?
• How are unruptured ovarian cysts smaller than 5 cm typically managed?
• Which finding is NOT typical of Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic State?
• Which antibiotic is the first-line treatment for Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?
• In a patient presenting with fatigue, jaundice, pruritus, yellow plaques, osteoarthritis, and portal hypertension, which diagnosis is most likely?
• Beck's triad includes which of the following components?
• Treatment for suspected adrenal crisis should include which of the following?
• An older patient with unilateral temple tenderness and a tender temporal artery, with no focal neurological signs, is most likely diagnosed with which condition?
• Which laboratory finding may be seen in Ehrlichiosis?
• Which agent is used to neutralize circulating tetanus toxin in generalized tetanus?
• Which of the following is a common complication of tibial fractures?
• In electrical injuries, which age group is more likely to experience high voltage injuries at work?
• In suspected arterial occlusion of a peripheral limb, what is the initial management step?
• In gout, which joint is most commonly involved in the initial attack?
• In pneumonia empiric treatment, which category corresponds to CAP requiring inpatient treatment?
• For mild bronchiolitis, which treatment is commonly used?
• Time to heal for a superficial second-degree burn is typically:
• In a patient with sudden hypotension, muffled heart sounds, pulsus paradoxus, and echocardiography showing a large pericardial effusion, what is the most appropriate next step in management?
• Current anticoagulation with INR 2-3 is considered what in the decision to use thrombolysis?
• A patient with chronic kidney disease presents with bradycardia, flaccid paralysis, ileus, and a peaked T wave on ECG. Which lab abnormality is most likely?
• Where is the most likely site of elbow bursitis in a patient with swelling near the elbow?
• In Class 4 hypovolemic shock, urine output is?
• Late decelerations are described as which pattern on fetal monitoring?
• What is the gold standard imaging for diagnosing suspected kidney injury after trauma?
• Acute inflammation of the lacrimal gland is called what?
• Match the cerebral lobes to their primary functions: Frontal Lobe, Parietal Lobe, Temporal Lobe, Occipital Lobe.
• Which factor is most useful in diagnosing dysbarism?
• What is the most common cause of infectious arthritis in young adults?
• In a 68-year-old woman with dyspnea and a new systolic murmur, what is the most appropriate next diagnostic step?
• Which infection is diagnosed by a saline wet prep showing motile, flagellated organisms?
• Which of the following is a potential consequence of correcting sodium too rapidly in a patient with hypernatremia?
• Portal hypertension in biliary cirrhosis most commonly leads to which complication?
• Which of the following is not part of the five Hs?
• An elderly woman with severe dehydration is treated in the ED. Which IV fluid is indicated initially?
• Which of the following is part of the classic pentad of Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura?
• Intra-articular distal radius fracture with dorsal displacement of the distal fragment and carpus subluxation is which fracture?
• A wedge fracture is best described as compression of which vertebral column portion?
• The recommended door-to-balloon time for PCI in STEMI is how many minutes?
• In a patient with myocardial infarction who also has heart failure, which therapy is commonly recommended?
• A 35-year-old woman presents with multiple ulcerative lesions on the labia; Tzanck preparation shows multinucleated giant cells. What is the most likely diagnosis?
• Which fracture pattern is produced by a rotational force?
• In a patient with a fracture of the orbital floor, which nerve is most likely affected, causing decreased sensation of the cheek?
• A patient with chronic alcoholism presents with nystagmus, ophthalmoplegia, confusion, and ataxia. This presentation is most consistent with deficiency of which vitamin?
• How do you test motor and sensory function of the median nerve?
• Which radiographic sign is described as the coffee bean sign on abdominal imaging?
• Labyrinthitis presents with rotational vertigo and nystagmus. What is the characteristic direction of nystagmus?
• Which practice is NOT recommended in marine trauma wound care?
• Acute leukemia presents with which constellation of symptoms?
• What is the most common viral cause of encephalitis in the United States?
• Which factors aggravate symptoms in acute pericarditis?
• Which antidote is used for opiate and heroin overdose?
• In concussion grading by the American Academy of Neurology, which grade corresponds to confusion with no loss of consciousness for less than 15 minutes?
• Endoscopic injection of which toxin is used in the treatment of achalasia?
• Which respiration pattern is commonly seen in diabetic ketoacidosis but not in Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic State?
• Which of the following is NOT a minor criterion in the Duke criteria for diagnosing infective endocarditis?
• In hyperkalemia, which is used to stabilize the cardiac membrane?
• Which sign would indicate diaphragmatic injury after trauma?
• Pulsus paradoxus is most closely associated with which condition?
• In atrial flutter, the typical EKG pattern seen in leads II, III, and aVF is described as:
• Which medication is indicated if a mushroom-poisoning patient is hallucinating or agitated?
• Which labs/imaging are ordered to diagnose pancreatitis?
• Painful grouped vesicles on an erythematous base.
• If laboratory results suggest an electrolyte abnormality but the patient’s symptoms do not, what is the appropriate next step?
• A 1-year-old with easy bruising presents with swelling and warmth over the knee due to hemarthrosis. Which physical finding would you expect?
• In carbon monoxide poisoning, what therapy may be used beyond high-flow oxygen?
• The findings of unilateral periorbital edema (Romana sign), painful cutaneous edema (Chagoma), lymphadenopathy, and hepatosplenomegaly are most consistent with which disease?
• Which statement is true about management of marine puncture wounds?
• Which fracture is characterized by axial loading as an injury mechanism?
• In men, chlamydia most commonly presents as which condition?
• Hemophilia A is treated with which clotting factor?
• A positive troponin result is defined by what criterion?
• In the management of diabetic ketoacidosis, what is considered the most important initial step?
• Alternating convergent strabismus is considered normal until what age in infants?
• Which is the first-line treatment for anaphylactic shock?
• What is the emergent treatment for arterial embolism or thrombosis presenting with pain, pallor, pulselessness, paresthesias, and paralysis?
• Which statement best differentiates von Willebrand disease Type 1, Type 2, and Type 3?
• A 65-year-old recent alcoholic with dyspnea on exertion and orthopnea due to beriberi should be treated with which?
• Which electrolyte disturbance presents with depression, vertigo, nystagmus, ataxia, seizures, dysphagia, hypothermia and characteristic DTR changes?
• In a patient presenting with chest pain, which finding would most strongly support myocardial infarction?
• In a greenstick fracture, which radiographic description best describes this fracture?
• Late hypothermia symptom?
• A slow onset of abdominal pain, fever, and nausea/vomiting after trauma is most consistent with injury to which hollow organ?
• What is the treatment for cauda equina syndrome?
• Which type of chemical burn is generally more destructive to tissue, acid or alkali?
• Which statement about Brown-Sequard syndrome is true?
• Impetigo is a contagious superficial skin infection most commonly caused by Staph aureus; which topical antibiotic is commonly used?
• If CT scanning is not available for pediatric head injury, which imaging modality may be an acceptable alternative?
• Active elbow extension is primarily produced by which muscle?
• Which of the following is a neurologic effect listed for malignant hypertension?
• What is the most common complaint in sickle cell patients?
• Boxer's fracture is a fracture of the neck of the fourth or fifth metacarpal, typically from striking with a clenched fist. Which fracture name matches this description?
• What is the mainstay of therapy for von Willebrand disease?
• Mononucleosis-like illness with exudative pharyngitis and palatal petechiae is most commonly due to infection with which virus?
• Stage 1 iron toxicity presents with which manifestation?
• Which joint is the most commonly dislocated in the body?
• What ECG finding is characteristic of acute pericarditis?
• Which statement best reflects the treatment approach for High Altitude Pulmonary Edema?
• What is the first consideration in the management of an adolescent with an eating disorder and weight concerns?
• What proportion of trauma-related deaths are due to head trauma?
• A patient who is intoxicated has mydriasis. Which substance could he have been using?
• How is the anion gap calculated?
• Which physical finding indicates poor peripheral perfusion in shock?
• Which CSF profile is most consistent with bacterial meningitis?
• Stasis dermatitis is most commonly associated with which underlying condition?
• What are the adjunctive tx for fibrinolysis or PCI?
• Reperfusion should take place before how many hours from symptom onset?
• Which disease is described by cycles of fever and chills after recent travel, with splenomegaly and anemia?
• Which of the following is a listed cause of hypercalcemia?
• Which presentation includes jaw stiffness and risus sardonicus with muscle rigidity and spasms?
• Hymenoptera refers to which insects?
• What will a Gram stain of a gonorrheal infection typically show?
• Blepharitis is inflammation of which anatomic structure?
• Pityriasis rosea is classically preceded by a herald patch and followed by patches in a Christmas tree pattern along skin lines. Which condition is this?
• Which sequence correctly matches the angina types? stable angina is triggered by activity; unstable angina may show transient ST changes; prinzmetal/variant angina is due to vasospasm.
• Interdigital scaling, maceration, erythema of the soles or palms, and itching is most consistent with which diagnosis?
• Subclavian Steal Syndrome typically presents with symptoms triggered by exercising which limb due to retrograde vertebral artery flow?
• Which of the following is classified as a positive symptom of schizophrenia?
• A 55-year-old woman with a history of mitral valve replacement and mitral stenosis presents with increasing dyspnea on exertion and palpitations. ECG shows atrial flutter with 2:1 AV block. Her INR has been therapeutic for 4 weeks. What is the most appropriate next step in treatment?
• Which AV block results in atrial and ventricular rhythms that are independent of each other?
• Which regimen is recommended for prosthetic valve endocarditis?
• During a physical exam after a nasal bone fracture, which finding must you look for to prevent ischemic necrosis of the nasal septum?
• Noninvasive management options for congestive heart failure include which of the following?
• Febrile seizures in children are most commonly characterized by which of the following?
• Which is the most common form of cardiomyopathy?
• The four types of urinary incontinence are total, stress, urge, and overflow. What term completes the sentence?
• In trauma during pregnancy, which interventions should be avoided unless OB/GYN consultation is obtained?
• Which medication can be given to reduce blood pressure so that tPA can be administered?
• What is the recommended treatment for unstable supraventricular tachycardia?
• Which of the following is NOT a component of Virchow's Triad?
• Which electrolyte imbalance is seen with torsades de pointes?
• A patient presents with spastic paralysis on the right, loss of proprioception and vibration on the right, and loss of pain and temperature on the left after spinal trauma. Dx?
• Which Salter-Harris fracture types can generally be treated with closed reduction and cast immobilization?
• A 24-year-old HIV-positive man presents with severe left chest pain that improves when sitting forward. Exam reveals a pericardial friction rub. Chest x-ray shows a water bottle–shaped cardiac silhouette. Which diagnostic study is most appropriate next step in management?
• This clinical picture — acute fever, focal neurologic deficits, CSF abnormalities, and temporal lobe lesions on CT — is most consistent with which diagnosis?
• Which of the following is a cause of decreased platelet production?
• For suspected testicular torsion, which imaging modality is the diagnostic imaging of choice to confirm the diagnosis?
• Which antihypertensive is noted as suitable for use in pregnancy?
• Central Retinal Artery Occlusion presents with acute, painless, monocular vision loss and risk factors such as hypertension, atrial fibrillation, and atherosclerosis. Which condition is described?
• Which of the following is an appropriate treatment for lice infestation?
• A patient presents with spaghetti and meatballs appearance on KOH preparation. What is the most likely diagnosis?
• Which equation is used to estimate extracellular fluid deficit in dehydration?
• Clear, tense vesicles and bullae on head, trunk and mucous membranes. Bullae rupture in 2-3 days producing painful denuded areas.
• A 2-year-old with acute abdominal pain and bloody diarrhea most likely has which diagnosis?
• Acute bacterial prostatitis is treated with antibiotics for how long?
• ST elevations in I, aVL, V4, V5, V6 indicate which MI and artery?
• In infections with Shiga toxin–producing Escherichia coli, which intervention is contraindicated?
• In documentation of a 19-year-old with rhyming, nonsensical speech during an interview, which term best describes this behavior?
• Which statement correctly describes sprain grades?
• What is the hallmark sign of heat stroke?
• In the sequence for correcting fluids and electrolytes, which component is addressed third?
• Bethesda inhibitor assay is for measuring the amount of antibody against factors in Hemophilia A and B.
• Which laboratory finding most strongly suggests a cholestatic process?
• Which statement about GU injury management is true?
• What is the most common cause of pleural effusions?
• What serum sodium level defines hypernatremia?
• A pregnant woman at 28 weeks with signs suggestive of rheumatic heart disease shows an opening snap and a diastolic rumble best heard at the apex in the left lateral decubitus position. Which lesion is most likely on echocardiogram?
• A person recently swam and now has watery diarrhea, fever, cramping, and N/V. Which organism is most likely, and what is a treatment option?
• Heat tetany is best managed by which initial step?
• What are the characteristics of 2nd degree frostbite?
• Laryngitis is most commonly caused by which type of infectious agents?
• Cellulitis is infection of which tissue layer?
• What is the most common form of tetanus?
• A scuba diver ascends and develops mottled skin and arthritis in the shoulder and knee that is not worsened by movement. What is the diagnosis and initial treatment?
• Which antidote reverses the effects of opioids?
• Tx for heparin-induced bleeding?
• L4 radiculopathy typically presents with weakness in which muscle?
• Where is needle decompression performed for a tension pneumothorax?
• What is the most common cause of pericarditis?
• A 14-year-old boy with acute scrotal pain; which diagnostic test is most helpful to confirm testicular torsion?
• The dinner fork deformity is most characteristic of which fracture?
• Visual changes and ocular pain in periorbital versus orbital infections are more suggestive of which condition?
• Barotrauma during ascent is due to expansion of gas in body cavities. Which of the following is the correct mechanism?
• In a triage scenario, an elderly woman who fainted with shortness of breath and a younger man who fainted without prodrome, what is the likely cause of each episode?
• Which electrocardiographic finding is most characteristic of acute pericarditis?
• ST elevations in V1, V2 indicate which MI and artery?
• Which statement correctly lists the axes of the DSM-IV as I, II, III, and IV?
• Which mechanism is commonly associated with posterior cruciate ligament injuries?
• Which electrolyte pattern is typical in adrenal crisis?
• A patient presents with headache, nausea, and dizziness after exposure to gas or smoke, with anion gap metabolic acidosis. What is the most likely diagnosis?
• What is the definition of hypocalcemia?
• What syndrome features quadriparesis with more involvement of upper extremities and loss of pain and temperature sensation more in the upper extremities?
• In a patient with atrial flutter and 2:1 AV block, which diagnostic study is most appropriate next to evaluate for valvular disease?
• Which pathogen causes malaria?
• _____ is due to reduction in volume of the lumbar spinal canal, causing compression and paralysis, and presents with leg weakness and loss of urinary and anal sphincter control.
• In first trimester vaginal bleeding, which type of abortion is defined by an open cervical os with no products of conception expelled?
• Which condition is a known risk factor for multifocal atrial tachycardia (MAT)?
• Which of the following is listed among home medications after ACS for cardiovascular risk reduction?
• In pediatric hematogenous osteomyelitis, which bone is most commonly involved?
• In a patient who has experienced intimate partner violence, which of the following actions is most appropriate to recommend?
• A 59-year-old woman sustains second- and third-degree burns to the head and neck, anterior surfaces of both arms, one leg, and the trunk including the genital area. Using the Rule of Nines, which estimate best reflects the total burn area?
• In suspected ischemic stroke, which test is most useful to determine the arterial source of the thrombus?
• What is a recommended management for gastroenteritis according to the material?
• Recent travel followed by localized inflammation at the site of a fly bite that evolves into a painless chancre with intermittent fevers, rash, and behavioral or neurologic changes. Which diagnosis best fits this presentation?
• Which nerve is tested by saying 'ahh'?
• What is the hallmark of pit viper envenomation?
• Vitamin K deficiency affects which of the following factors?
• Acute bronchitis is usually caused by viruses; which bacterial pathogens are commonly implicated?
• Kernig sign is elicited by what finding?
• Central Cord Syndrome true statement?
• Which DSM-IV axis corresponds to general and acute medical conditions?
• Which of the following is a primary malignant tumor of the bone?
• Which fracture is a Y-shaped three-part fracture of the thumb at the carpometacarpal joint?
• Which condition is the leading cause of death in myocardial infarction?
• Physostigmine is used with caution in anticholinergic toxicity because of risks including hypersalivation, AV block, seizures. Which drug's adverse effects limit its use?
• Infection of the lacrimal sac is called what?
• A 16-year-old male with left orbital trauma has diplopia on extraocular movement testing, enophthalmos, and decreased sensation over the left cheek. Imaging shows an orbital fracture. What is the most likely fracture type?
• Which clinical feature indicates the need for surgical intervention in arterial insufficiency?
• Recent travel with alternating constipation and diarrhea, colitis, abdominal pain, fever, weight loss. Which disease is likely?
• Which of the following is a treatment option for glaucoma mentioned in the material?
• Beta-blocker overdose commonly causes which effect on blood sugar?
• What is the Nikolsky sign?
• In L5 radiculopathy, which muscle demonstrates motor weakness?
• A distal tibia fracture in a 5-year-old with separation of the epiphysis and a small chip fracture of the metaphysis corresponds to which Salter-Harris type?
• A midsystolic click heard best at the apex indicates which condition?
• A patient with a history of SVT who failed vagal maneuvers is given a drug that acutely terminates the arrhythmia by slowing conduction through the AV node. Which drug is the first-line choice?
• Which of the following is NOT a listed cause of hypovolemic shock?
• Which medication is NOT a first-line therapy for hepatitis B?
• In lunate or perilunate dislocations, what complication is of primary concern due to neurovascular compromise?
• Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome management includes:
• In a patient younger than 18 with back pain, which condition is specifically listed as a concern?
• For asymptomatic hypocalcemia, what is the recommended treatment?
• Which disease features lesions that have a depression in the center and are all at the same stage, spreading from the face/arms to trunk/legs?
• In severe hypothermia, which warming method is preferred for rapid rewarming?
• Which mechanism is most commonly associated with ACL tears?
• In central retinal artery occlusion, which medication may help to reduce intraocular pressure?
• Which radiographic finding is typical of bronchiolitis on chest imaging?
• Which murmur is pansystolic, blowing, high-pitched, and radiates to the left axilla?
• Which factor is NOT useful in diagnosing dysbarism?
• What are the three main management strategies described for atrial fibrillation?
• Which condition is commonly caused by immune-mediated destruction of platelets leading to isolated thrombocytopenia?
• Which hepatitis viruses are transmitted by fecal-oral routes?
• For otitis externa, which topical regimen is commonly used?
• What delta pressure value indicates compartment syndrome?
• Enlarged tonsils, exudates, and petechiae of the palate are classic for infection with which organism?
• Which antidote is used for tricyclic antidepressant overdose?
• ____ is an uncommon cause of acute renal failure due to immune complex deposits in the kidney. Dysmorphic RBC and RBC casts are common.
• What is an appropriate initial empiric antibiotic regimen for orbital cellulitis?
• Which intravenous fluid is recommended in alcoholic ketoacidosis?
• Which heat illness is characterized by a core temperature greater than 41°C and is a medical emergency?
• Which condition presents with sudden onset of eye pain, blurred vision, headache, nausea/vomiting and halos around lights?
• What x-rays should you order for a shoulder dislocation?
• Which type of leg ulcer is typically punched-out with hair loss?
• In suspected alcoholic ketoacidosis, what is the critical initial management step before giving dextrose?
• A shortened, deformed, painful leg after a motor vehicle accident most likely indicates which injury?
• Beck's triad in pericardial tamponade includes which three findings?
• Which hepatitis B serology marker indicates current infection?
• Which respiratory pattern is commonly observed in alcoholic ketoacidosis?
• Which symptom cluster is commonly associated with acute coronary syndrome?
• Brudzinski sign is described as spontaneous hip flexion during attempted passive neck flexion.
• Which syndrome presents with greater weakness in the upper extremities after a cervical hyperextension?
• What is the first step in managing spine injuries?
• Which fracture is an oblique fracture through the base of the radial styloid in the forearm?
• Among adults over 50 with back pain, which condition is described as a vascular emergency to consider?
• In acute compartment syndrome of the leg, which compartment is most commonly involved?
• In electrical injuries, which age group typically experiences low voltage injuries from electrical outlets?
• The door-to-needle time for thrombolysis in STEMI is how many minutes?
• In an asthmatic or COPD patient, what is the typical progression of CO2 and oxygen that indicates impending respiratory failure?
• Which Rule of Nines component is correctly matched?
• Which statement describes the diagnostic criteria for ARDS?
• A 15 year-old male with URI is now presenting with bilateral hilar infiltrates on chest X-ray, normal WBC, and elevated cold agglutinin titer. Most likely diagnosis?
• Which disease classically shows a widened mediastinum and hilar adenopathy with no focal infiltrate on chest X-ray?
• What is the hallmark metabolic finding in isopropyl alcohol ingestion?
• Which scenario would prompt plain radiographs for back pain according to red flags?
• The nonpitting, dry, waxy swelling of the skin seen in myxedema is referred to as what?
• Which therapy is central to the management of methanol or ethylene glycol poisoning?
• Which of the following heart sounds is NOT typically associated with a myocardial infarction?
• Which imaging modality is more sensitive for hyperacute and acute intracranial hemorrhage?
• Which electrolyte disturbance presents with absent deep tendon reflexes and hypotension in severe cases?
• In patients with life-threatening dysrhythmias causing syncope, what is the recommended treatment?
• What are the most common foreign bodies causing airway obstruction in children?
• Epidural hematoma on CT is typically described as which shape?
• What is the recommended reduction maneuver for a patellar dislocation?
• What is the most common cause of acute arthritis in young adults?
• Which antibiotic is listed as a treatment for plague (Yersinia pestis)?
• Which method is most reliable for confirming endotracheal tube placement at the time of intubation?
• Inversion ankle sprain typically injures which ligament first?
• What blood glucose level is typical for diabetic ketoacidosis?
• Which is true of encephalitis CSF findings?
• In suspected esophageal rupture with subcutaneous emphysema and Hamman’s crunch, what is the diagnostic test of choice?
• In the management of preeclampsia, which combination lists seizure prophylaxis and first-line antihypertensive?
• What is the standard treatment for syphilis?
• An elderly patient with suspected upper GI bleeding; which diagnostic study is most appropriate to locate the bleeding source?
• Calcium pyrophosphate crystals in synovial fluid are associated with pseudogout. Which joint is most commonly affected by pseudogout?
• Which patient profile is at highest risk for myxedema coma?
• What meds should a patient go home with after ACS?
• For a diabetic foot ulcer less than 2 cm, superficial, with no fever or ischemic changes, which management is appropriate?
• What combination defines diabetic ketoacidosis in terms of glucose, bicarbonate, and pH?
• Intrinsic acute kidney injury is most commonly associated with which condition?
• In adrenal crisis, which laboratory abnormalities are typically seen?
• Which conditions need to be monitored in a person who sustains electrical injury?
• Which antibiotic classes are used to treat both anthrax and Yersinia pestis plague?
• In correcting fluids and electrolytes, which should be addressed first?
• Which treatment is commonly prescribed for tinea capitis?
• Which of the following is a risk factor for pulmonary embolism?
• Oxygen supplementation should be considered when oxygen saturation falls below what level?
• What is the hallmark symptom of acute mountain sickness?
• Basal cell carcinoma is best described as which lesion?
• What symptom is vaginal purulent discharge caused by?
• What is the most common organism causing septic shock?
• Which of the following is a contraindication to tissue plasminogen activator (TPA) therapy?
• In Class 3 hypovolemic shock, estimated blood loss is between which value?
• What echocardiographic finding is described in pericarditis?
• Delayed onset of mushroom poisoning symptoms (>6 hours) is associated with which prognosis?
• What are the 5 levels of verbal response in the Glasgow Coma Scale?
• According to CDC guidelines, what induration size is considered positive for persons born in high prevalence areas or IV drug users?
• Fresh water exposure, high fever, severe headache, myalgia, hepatitis, conjunctivitis without purulent discharge.
• Which sensory change is considered pathognomonic for ciguatera poisoning?
• What is the normal serum bicarbonate range?
• Which fracture is a fracture/dislocation of the thumb at the carpometacarpal joint?
• Which combination of medications is commonly used to treat alcohol withdrawal in the emergency department?
• What are the 4 levels of eye opening in the Glasgow Coma Scale?
• What is the gold standard for diagnosis of intestinal ischemia?
• Which antidote is used for tricyclic antidepressant overdose?
• Among the listed causes of syncope, which is most closely associated with death?
• Stage 1 hypertension is defined as greater than which blood pressure?
• Which burn depth involves the epidermis and upper dermis?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the four syndromes of severe arbovirus infection?
• The fern test detects crystallization of salts in the amniotic fluid. Which test is this describing?
• Trauma to the abdomen with signs of blood loss and peritoneal contamination indicates which type of injury?
• Which long bone is the strongest in the body?
• Which statement correctly describes Type 3 pelvic fracture?
• Bethesda inhibitor assay is used to measure what?
• A patient presents with fatigue, anxiety, and palpitations; exam reveals a midsystolic click. What is the most likely diagnosis?
• In Toxic Shock Syndrome management, which step helps remove potential sources?
• Patellofemoral syndrome is most common in which population?
• Which vascular territory is most likely affected in a stroke presenting with contralateral leg weakness greater than arm weakness and incontinence?
• Renal artery thrombosis is associated with a fracture at which vertebral level?
• Which of the following is NOT a cause of hypernatremia?
• What is the most common complication of Amebiasis?
• An elderly woman with wrist pain near the anatomic snuffbox after a fall; which carpal bone is most likely fractured?
• Which is a recognized treatment for ciguatera poisoning?
• Which pathogens are commonly associated with patchy radiographic infiltrates in pneumonia?
• Which signs are associated with Eastern Coral Snake envenomation?
• Lyme disease is caused by which organism?
• Which term best describes anemia caused by premature destruction of red blood cells?
• In Class 2 hypovolemic shock, what percent of blood volume is lost?
• A fracture involving the medial epicondyle will most likely damage which nerve?
• In disseminated intravascular coagulation, which transfusion product is listed as a treatment option?
• Ischemic strokes are not visible on noncontrast CT until at least how many hours after brain infarction?
• In suspected traumatic thoracic aorta injury, which bedside imaging is indicated for unstable patients?
• Which finding on a saline wet prep is diagnostic for Trichomoniasis?
• What is Kussmaul sign?
• C5 radiculopathy typically presents with weakness in which muscle groups?
• Which statement about troponin testing is true?
• Basal cell carcinoma is most commonly located on which facial feature?
• Which is an appropriate initial management for mild Acute Mountain Sickness?
• What is the most common symptom of thrombocytopenia?
• Which pathogen is commonly acquired from eating undercooked poultry or contaminated natural water sources?
• Which medication directly inhibits glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptors on platelets to prevent aggregation?
• What imaging study is the imaging study of choice for suspected kidney stones?
• Ground glass appearance of the cornea after a chemical splash to the eye indicates which burn type?
• Which statement correctly identifies factors that shift potassium into cells?
• What nerve injury is associated with a humeral shaft fracture?
• Which type of chemical burn is described as coagulation necrosis with eschar after a chemical spill on the arm?
• What is the historical common name for injury to the ulnar collateral ligament of the thumb at the base of the first metacarpophalangeal joint due to forced abduction?
• What is the typical imaging sequence used in diagnosing pulmonary embolism, in order from initial to final confirmation?
• A 64-year-old man with perforated sigmoid colon undergoes emergent surgery. Which operation is most appropriate in an unprepared patient?
• Which medication is considered first-line therapy for schizophrenia in this material?
• Which therapy removes potassium from the body via the gastrointestinal tract?
• Posterior epistaxis arises from the Woodruff plexus; which option lists the correct plexus?
• What is the sublingual nitroglycerin dose used in MONA?
• Diastolic dysfunction means a problem with which cardiac property?
• In chronic renal failure, which antihypertensive is listed as part of the recommended therapy?
• Which fracture type is caused by repetitive stress and may not be seen on initial radiographs?
• Which EKG finding is most consistent with a pulmonary embolism?
• Which intravenous agent reduces intraocular pressure by decreasing vitreous or aqueous volume in acute angle-closure glaucoma?
• Which seizure type preserves consciousness?
• In suspected acute epiglottitis, what is the initial treatment of choice?
• Which fracture is an intra-articular fracture with a displaced radial articular fragment?
• What is the most likely type of shoulder dislocation in a patient who has a traumatic event and cannot move the shoulder?
• Initial treatment for an ankle fracture includes which of the following?
• Which of the following is recommended if a Gila Monster bite is still attached to the patient?
• Kehr sign is defined as what?
• What is the target door-to-balloon time for percutaneous coronary intervention in STEMI?
• Which symptom is associated with hypercalcemia?
• In a boxer fracture, what angulation threshold requires referral for reduction?
• What is the Parkland formula for fluid resuscitation in burn victims?
• Which organism is shiga toxin–producing and associated with bloody diarrhea?
• Purple, polygonal pruritic papules with Wickham striae describe which condition?
• A Rh-negative woman at 14 weeks gestation presents with vaginal bleeding and clots. What Rhogam dose is indicated?
• In a blowout fracture, which sign indicates orbital fat herniation into the maxillary sinus on plain radiographs?
• In Class 2 hypovolemic shock, estimated blood loss is between which values?
• An 80-year-old patient with abdominal pain and a plain film showing a coffee bean-shaped appearance; the most likely diagnosis is:
• In acute tricyclic antidepressant overdose, which intervention addresses sodium channel blockade and is commonly used as part of management?
• Liver disease bleeding management: which treatment is used when there is active bleeding or before surgery?
• Which drug is a thrombolytic agent used to dissolve clots in an acute myocardial infarction patient?
• Which DI type reacts to a water deprivation test?
• Which is a common cause of metabolic alkalosis?
• Which of the following is NOT among the five T's?
• During pertussis, the catarrhal stage most closely resembles which condition?
• Which class of medications is generally contraindicated in congestive heart failure?
• In hyponatremia management when the patient is hypovolemic, which fluid is typically used for resuscitation?
• A patient with hip fracture is suspected after an elderly fall. Which fracture best fits a shortened leg with external rotation?
• Bennett fracture is an oblique fracture of which bone near the carpometacarpal joint?
• In macular degeneration, which form cannot be prevented?
• Empiric therapy for cellulitis should cover which organisms?
• Which feature distinguishes necrotizing fasciitis from cellulitis?
• Which statement best describes the management of Eastern Coral Snake bites?
• Which of the following describes the classic triad for spinal infection?
• Which organism causes syphilis?
• What is the treatment for symptomatic hypocalcemia?
• Which of the following is not part of the five Hs?
• Which condition presents with asymmetric swelling of peritonsillar tissue and uvular deviation away from the affected side, with symptoms such as sore throat, drooling, 'hot potato' voice, and trismus?
• During treatment of diabetic ketoacidosis or hyperglycemic hyperosmolar state, which electrolyte must be monitored and possibly supplemented to prevent hypokalemia?
• Which hematoma results from venous injury and has a slower onset after head trauma, with symptoms such as headache and confusion?
• A patient with petechiae, diffuse hemorrhages, altered mental status, oliguria, and focal ischemia is most consistent with which diagnosis?
• Which of the following is an intubation complication?
• Heat syncope is primarily caused by which combination of factors?
• Which antivirals shorten the course of influenza A or B?
• Which is the most serious systemic complication associated with Kawasaki disease?
• What is the goal of immediate trauma care, often referred to as the golden hour?
• Herald patch preceding a diffuse eruption in a Christmas-tree pattern along skin lines is characteristic of which condition?
• Which therapy is considered disease-modifying for biliary cirrhosis?
• Which criterion indicates the use of sodium bicarbonate therapy in metabolic acidosis?
• Trousseau sign indicates hypocalcemia.
• In diabetic ketoacidosis, which pattern of breathing is characteristic?
• Which medication is commonly used to treat erythema multiforme?
• What is the definition of hyperkalemia?
• Varicella treatment in immunocompromised patients or those older than 12 years should include which antiviral?
• What is the definition of hypothermia?
• Which statement correctly lists vitamin K–dependent clotting factors?
• Which type of hyponatremia is characterized by hyponatremia with no signs of dehydration or volume retention?
• Chvostek sign is described as which of the following?
• In suspected pelvic fracture after high-energy trauma, which assessment step is essential?
• What is the term for a radial head subluxation in a young child following pulling on an arm?
• If initial ultrasound for suspected cholecystitis is inconclusive, which imaging study can confirm the diagnosis?
• Which combination of approximate systolic blood pressures correctly matches the presence of pulses at the radial, femoral, and carotid arteries?
• How is vaginal candidiasis diagnosed?
• Troponin elevations are not reliable until after how many hours?
• Which of the following is listed as a treatment option for hypernatremia?
• Which symptom is commonly associated with hypokalemia?
• Which intervention may be indicated for severe barbiturate toxicity but is ineffective for benzodiazepines?
• Which option describes a toxic reaction to Hymenoptera stings?
• Which primary survey step focuses on visualizing any hidden injuries by exposing the patient?
• Which ECG finding is characteristic of hyperkalemia?
• Infant with tender skin, diffuse erythema, sand-paper skin followed by large bullae and sloughing; positive Nikolsky sign.
• In boxer fracture management, which treatment is appropriate for angulation less than 40 degrees without extensor lag?
• Posterior epistaxis is harder to manage because it originates from which plexus?
• A delirious 8-year-old with influenza and noninflammatory CSF, liver enlargement, and vomiting—what is the most likely diagnosis?
• In dysfunctional uterine bleeding, what is the gold standard method to determine whether ovulation has occurred?
• What is the most common cause of anaphylactic shock?
• In cardiac tamponade, which procedure provides immediate relief?
• Heinz bodies indicate which deficiency or condition?
• Which findings are characteristic of bacterial vaginosis?
• In a patient with hypo- or hypercalcemia, what other lab must be ordered and why?
• What are common fractures associated with shoulder dislocation?
• What is the standard initial treatment for an acute myocardial infarction?
• Which therapy is included in the management of Cerebral Arterial Gas Embolism?
• For Streptococcal Toxic Shock Syndrome, which management step is recommended?
• In pulmonary embolism, the EKG pattern S1Q3T3 may appear with or without which conduction abnormality?
• Which is a stress fracture of the metatarsal?
• What is the initial management step for an adolescent presenting with status epilepticus?
• Valgus laxity of the knee generally indicates injury to which ligament?
• Initial management of suspected cholera focuses on what?
• What is the antidote for benzodiazepine overdose?
• Hypocalcemia is associated with which ECG change?
• Which fracture is a distal radius fracture with dorsal displacement, commonly resulting from a fall on an outstretched hand (FOOSH)?
• In ciguatera seafood poisoning, which of the following is NOT a common source of the toxin?
• In pleural effusion evaluation, what does a lateral decubitus radiograph help demonstrate?
• For itching in biliary cirrhosis, which therapy is commonly used?
• Which fracture is an isolated ulna fracture?
• Which scoring system is used to predict mortality in pancreatitis, with a value greater than 6 indicating high mortality?
• A skier sustains a fall and pain at the base of the thumb; which ligament at the 1st MCP is most likely injured?
• In acid-base assessment, a HCO3- + AG − 12 value greater than 30 indicates what?
• What is the definition of hypercalcemia?
• Which carpal bone is second most commonly fractured and is the most commonly dislocated?
• Severe lower leg pain, inability to plantarflex, and inability to walk on toes after pushing off is most consistent with which injury?
• Which acronym lists risk factors used to assess suicide risk?
• A 17-year-old female distance runner has diffuse anterior knee pain that worsens when walking up or down stairs or squatting. There is no history of acute trauma and no knee effusion. What is the most likely diagnosis?
• In pediatric head injury evaluation, skull radiographs have a limited role due to high false positives rates and low prevalence. Which statement best describes this limitation?
• What is the PERC criteria used for?
• Which medication class is commonly used to reduce fluid overload in congestive heart failure?
• A 40-year-old female with fatigue, widespread muscle tenderness, and sleep disturbance; what is the most likely diagnosis?
• Acute otitis media is most commonly caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and Moraxella catarrhalis, with high-dose amoxicillin as the standard therapy. Which condition is this description most consistent with?
• Which antibiotic class is commonly used to treat pertussis?
• Which cardiac marker appears 3-6 hours after MI and remains elevated for 2-4 days and is specific to heart muscle?
• Which radiographic finding helps differentiate large bowel obstruction from small bowel obstruction on plain abdominal radiographs?
• What is the recommended BP-lowering target pattern in malignant hypertension?
• A painless lump on the dorsum of the wrist that recurs is most consistent with which diagnosis?
• Which of the following is a likely cause of a high anion gap metabolic acidosis in a non-diabetic patient?
• In carbon monoxide poisoning, initial management includes?
• Which obstetric condition is defined as hypertension (>140/90) with proteinuria and edema during pregnancy?
• Why should vaginal examination be avoided in a patient with suspected placenta previa?
• C6 radiculopathy typically presents with weakness in which muscle groups?
• Dilation of large conducting airways due to congenital or acquired conditions is called what?
• Which medication must be gradually discontinued to avoid rebound hypertension if stopped abruptly?
• Which EKG finding is most characteristic of hypothermia?
• Which AV block is defined by a sudden block in a P wave with no change in PR interval?
• In less severe croup, which treatment approach is appropriate?
• A football tackle where the shoulder lands on another player's body most likely results in which injury?
• What is the recommended method of tick removal?
• TIMI and GRACE scoring systems stratify risk in which condition?
• Which of the following is not part of the SLUDGE mnemonic?
• Which biomarker remains elevated the longest after myocardial infarction?
• A 55-year-old woman with mitral stenosis presents with dyspnea and palpitations; which tachyarrhythmia is most likely on EKG?
• What test confirms the diagnosis of biliary cirrhosis?
• Severe dehydration is diagnosed with signs such as dry mucosa and tachycardia; what IV regimen best matches this scenario?
• Guillain-Barre syndrome is most likely due to what type of mechanism?
• Placental abruption is typically associated with which features?
• Four factors for ____ potential are given the greatest weight: 1. depression or hopelessness 2. rational thinking loss 3. organized or serious attempt 4. stated future attempt
• A middle-aged patient with a crescendo-decrescendo systolic murmur best heard at the right upper sternal border radiating to the carotids is most consistent with which diagnosis?
• What is the most common form of infective endocarditis?
• Which antiviral is commonly used to treat influenza when started early?
• Which radiographic views should be obtained if a patellar fracture is suspected?
• Optic disc swelling caused by increased intracranial pressure is known as:
• Stanford type A dissection involves which part of the aorta and is typically treated surgically?
• Which AV block is characterized by progressive PR interval lengthening until a P wave is dropped?
• In a Rh-negative woman with vaginal bleeding before 12 weeks gestation, what is the indicated Rhogam dose?
• A twisting knee injury with knee deformity after sports is most consistent with which diagnosis?
• What is the treatment for sporotrichosis?
• A disk herniation compressing the L5 nerve root may present with weakness of which muscle?
• Among empiric pneumonia treatment categories, which corresponds to aspiration pneumonia acquired in the hospital setting?
• Bronchial foreign body aspiration presents with which signs?
• Which statement about electrocardiogram findings in calcium disorders is true?
• Which medication inhibits aqueous humor production as part of reducing intraocular pressure in acute angle-closure glaucoma?
• A hernia that cannot be reduced is called which of the following?
• Rhogam administration during pregnancy is indicated for which maternal-fetal Rh combination?
• In a patient with back pain and progressive neurological deficits suggesting epidural compression, what is the initial management step?
• What physical finding is most characteristic of pericarditis?
• Which leg position suggests an anterior hip dislocation?
• Which of the following is a listed cause of hypercalcemia related to vitamin D activity?
• Which depth categories are used to describe burns?
• Which topical treatment is appropriate for mild thermal burns?
• Which ECG finding may be seen in pericardial tamponade, and which bedside imaging helps confirm the diagnosis?
• Which bone is the most commonly fractured bone in the upper extremity?
• Pediatric fever algorithm: for babies less than 28 days old with fever ≥38°C, what is the recommended management?
• A chest X-ray showing a water bottle-shaped heart is most characteristic of which condition?
• What is the therapeutic INR for warfarin for most patients?
• An HIV-positive patient with chest discomfort, a pericardial friction rub, diffuse ST elevations, and normal troponin levels most likely has which diagnosis?
• Epiglottitis is most commonly seen in children between which ages?
• Vasopressin and octreotide are used in the management of severe cases of which condition?
• Which combination can cause hypermagnesemia?
• What is the name of the injury characterized by catastrophic brain swelling after a second concussion before prior symptoms have resolved?
• In addition to insulin and normal saline, which electrolyte is commonly infused in a type 2 diabetic arriving in a hyperglycemic, hyperosmolar, nonketotic state to prevent hypokalemia?
• Which Salter-Harris type is characterized by injury to the growth plate with no metaphyseal or epiphyseal fracture?
• In a systemic Hymenoptera reaction, what is the first-line treatment?
• Midsystolic murmur that decreases with squatting and increases with Valsalva is most consistent with which condition?
• Patchy areas of alopecia with broken off hairs and scales at the periphery.
• What is the testing modality of choice for HSV meningoencephalitis?
• What two meds should be given to all ACS patients that do not have contraindications?
• What is the most common type of hip dislocation?
• What are the three most common causes of DIC?
• Which injury is an UCL injury of the thumb metacarpophalangeal joint, with or without fracture?
• Which combination constitutes the classic triad of Wernicke's encephalopathy?
• Pain crisis in sickle cell disease is treated by what approach?
• The Drop Arm Test indicates which condition?
• In Class 4 hypovolemic shock, estimated blood loss is?
• In a patient with sickle cell disease presenting with chest pain, fever, tachypnea, and hypoxemia, what is the most likely diagnosis?
• Which cardiac marker is the test of choice and rises 2-6 hours after myocardial infarction and remains elevated for 5-10 days?
• Bankart fracture refers to detachment of which structure?
• In cellulitis, which antibiotic is an appropriate first-line option when MRSA risk is present?
• Which medication is recommended for pericardial inflammation syndrome?
• In a patient with tearing chest and back pain and a diastolic murmur, what is the expected finding on chest radiograph?
• Panic disorder is frequently encountered in the ED and the s/s mimic those of other illnesses. What tests should be done for the diagnosis of exclusion?
• Which statement best describes hepatitis B treatment duration if the response is favorable?
• Exudates occur when which type of factors that regulate pleural fluid are altered?
• In a femoral neck fracture that is non-displaced, what would you expect regarding leg length?
• In a patient with a hyperglycemic hyperosmolar state who is undergoing vigorous rehydration and IV insulin, when should glucose be added to the IV fluids?
• Which nerve injuries are most commonly associated with forearm injuries?
• Which congenital condition is known to increase the risk for aortic dissection?
• What EKG finding is classically associated with pulmonary embolism?
• Achalasia shows a classic deformity on barium swallow. What is this deformity commonly described as?
• A patient with heavy alcohol use presents with severe midepigastric pain radiating to the back and fever; WBC elevated and amylase elevated. The most likely diagnosis is?
• Among imaging options for suspected aortic dissection, which is most commonly performed in the ED due to being less invasive?
• In multifocal atrial tachycardia, which class of agents is considered the treatment of choice?
• Main method for confirmation of arboviral infections?
• Common complications of a Galeazzi fracture include which of the following?
• An elderly alcoholic with dyspnea and edema; which is the most likely cause of high-output heart failure?
• What are the characteristics of 3rd degree frostbite?
• Which murmur description is most consistent with aortic stenosis?
• Which cancer is among the most common to metastasize to the vertebrae and cause back pain?
• Which is the most appropriate initial management for heat cramps?
• Restrictive pericarditis treatment includes diuretics and which intervention?
• Treatment for acetaminophen toxicity when the level is 150 mg/dL at 4 hours after ingestion includes which of the following?
• Which Salter-Harris fracture types involve cartilage of both the articular surface and growth plate and usually require open reduction and internal fixation?
• A key differential for Guillain-Barre syndrome should always be considered due to similar ascending paralysis. Which toxin is this referring to?
• Aortic stenosis is most likely to be the cause of syncope in which population?
• A 17 year-old patient presents to the emergency department with agitation and hallucinations, and has one seizure. He admits to using "some drugs" but does not know what they were. Which diagnostic study will be of most help in managing this patient?
• For tinea barbae, which systemic antifungal agent is listed as a treatment option?
• Chance fracture is a fracture through which vertebral columns?
• Which symptom best describes High Altitude Cerebral Edema?
• Cardiac Marker: _____ is detectable within 1-2 hours after acute MI and has duration <1 day with low specificity.
• In a patient without active bleeding, prophylactic platelet transfusion is typically indicated when the platelet count falls below:
• In suspected heparin-induced bleeding, what is an appropriate initial management step?
• Which medication is used to treat pruritus in biliary cirrhosis?
• Which statement accurately describes the Rule of 9's for estimating burn size?
• Which disease is associated with fever, rash, and a history of tick bite as classical features?
• Which of the following is NOT a rotator cuff muscle?
• Which statement best describes pain in osteoid osteoma?
• Which of the following best represents the standard treatment for moderate to major thermal burns?
• Which treatment is recommended for flea bites?
• In hypertensive emergency, what is the target reduction in blood pressure within the first hour?
• Which shoulder reduction technique uses traction plus counter-traction to reduce a dislocated shoulder?
• How long should Plavix/Clopidogrel be used for bare metal stents?
• Chronic back pain is defined as pain lasting more than which duration?
• Which procedure is commonly performed to evaluate and drain a pleural effusion?
• Which of the following is a first-line hepatitis B antiviral agent?
• For suspected infective endocarditis, what is a recommended initial diagnostic step?
• Lice infested followed by high fever, severe headache, maculopapular rash starting in axillae.
• For suspected ruptured ovarian cyst causing acute pain, what is the diagnostic imaging modality of choice?
• Which of the following is a risk factor for central retinal artery occlusion?
• Which topical treatment is used for scabies from the neck down?
• Which preventive measure is commonly recommended in chemical skin burns after exposure?
• In acute pericarditis, which electrocardiographic finding is most characteristic?
• Which drug is the drug of choice for acute hypertensive encephalopathy?
• Which of the following is NOT a listed cause of hypercalcemia?
• Complications associated with changes in environmental pressure and with breathing compressed gas are known as what?
• Which of the following is NOT among the five T's?
• Which finding best indicates an MCL or LCL tear?
• An elderly man with diabetes presents with dehydration and confusion after being found outdoors in cold weather. Which condition is most likely to explain his acute mental status changes?
• Which maneuver assesses ulnar nerve function?
• Which of the following is NOT a typical myocardial infarction presentation feature?
• Which antidote is used for acute benzodiazepine overdose?
• What constitutes the diagnostic criteria for Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome (SIRS)?
• Which disease presents with 'slapped cheeks' and a lacy rash on the arms and legs?
• Which IV fluid can be infused in the same line as blood components?
• A child pulled on the arm and now refuses to use the arm; what is the most likely injury?
• Back pain that worsens with walking and improves with rest is most consistent with which condition?
• Simple partial seizures are best described as seizures that involve which characteristic?
• When should visual acuity and pH testing be performed after an ocular chemical splash?
• Which antibiotic combination is appropriate for necrotizing fasciitis?
• What test is diagnostic for Bordetella pertussis infection?
• Temporal lobe involvement on CT is most characteristic of infection with which virus?
• Which organism causes erysipeloid with marginating plaques after handling fish?
• A suspected aspirin overdose presents with which acid-base disturbance?
• Which sign is commonly observed in shock?
• Which principle explains that increasing preload can increase the ejection fraction of the ventricle?
• Which condition is inflammatory cystic acne on the face of a young woman treated with prednisone and outpatient dermatology referral?
• In mushroom poisoning, which finding indicates a good prognosis?
• In diabetic ketoacidosis, which pH value is typically observed?
• A positive Coombs test indicates which condition?
• Which topical therapy is commonly used as first-line treatment for psoriasis?
• Klebsiella pneumoniae is particularly associated with pneumonia in which populations?
• To evaluate suspected biliary cirrhosis, which initial set of tests is most appropriate to order?
• Which statement best reflects the initial management for suspected spinal epidural abscess according to the material?
• Which organism is commonly associated with native valve endocarditis?
• What are the first-line and second-line medications for seizure after establishing airway and reversing metabolic causes?
• Hypercalcemia commonly presents on ECG with which change?
• Fusiform cerebral aneurysms typically develop in which artery?
• Which imaging modality is very accurate for differentiating ischemic from hemorrhagic stroke?
• Subdural hematoma on CT is typically crescent-shaped. Which option reflects this?
• The decrescendo–crescendo systolic murmur best heard at the base of the heart and radiating to the neck corresponds to which condition?
• Which medication increases aqueous humor outflow in acute angle-closure glaucoma?
• After blunt chest trauma, a patient has dullness to percussion and elevation of the right hemidiaphragm with diminished breath sounds. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
• Listeria monocytogenes meningitis is most common in which group?
• Which AV block is defined by a prolonged PR interval?
• Cardiac tamponade classically presents with which combination?
• Auricular hematomas are at increased risk of developing which condition?
• In a patient with a large pericardial effusion and tamponade physiology, which ECG finding is most characteristic?
• Deficiency in factor VIII is associated with which bleeding disorder?
• Which hematoma after a skull fracture presents with spinal fluid rhinorrhea and an initial unconsciousness followed by a lucid interval and later deterioration?
• Flu-like symptoms progressing quickly to mediastinal and hilar edema and respiratory failure describe which infection?
• How long should Plavix/Clopidogrel be used for drug-eluting stents?
• What are the hyperkalemia electrocardiographic changes?
• What is the main goal of therapy for fluid resuscitation in burn patients?
• Which is an example of isovolemic hypernatremia?
• In addition to MONA, which combination of medications is commonly used in the management of myocardial infarction?
• Which age group is least likely to experience a dislocation or sprain when significant stress is placed on joints?
• What is the progression from injury to death?
• Which triad is associated with intracranial hypertension?
• Orchitis is an inflammation of the testes often due to which virus?
• The three factors used in the clinical diagnosis of heat stroke are listed below. Which option lists them correctly?
• Elevated cold agglutinin titers are most characteristic of which infection?
• Which finding is most consistent with a brown recluse spider bite?
• Which statement is true about distributive shock?
• Which class of medication should be avoided in the management of fecal impaction due to constipation?
• For Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis, what is the initial management?
• What is the drug of choice for treating Necator americanus (hookworm) infection?
• What is the major cause of high altitude syndromes?
• Stage 2 hypertension is defined as greater than which blood pressure value?
• Inflammatory cystic acne on the face of a young woman.
• Which CSF finding is typical of Guillain-Barré syndrome?
• Which laboratory finding would indicate anemia?
• Spinal shock is typically characterized by which finding?
• Which of the following lists represents the complete classic pentad of Leishmaniasis?
• Which fracture is the fracture of the proximal third of the fibula with rupture of the distal tibiofibular syndesmosis?
• Which step is the first in the management during the golden hour?
• What is the most common arbovirus in returning travelers?
• Intermittent unilateral weakness in a patient raises suspicion for which diagnosis?
• What acid-base disturbance is characteristic of diabetic ketoacidosis?
• What deformity predisposes to testicular torsion?
• What medication do we not give with diarrhea according to the material?
• A proximal ulna fracture with dislocation of the radial head at the elbow is diagnosed as which injury?
• In tetanus-prone wounds, which situation warrants TIG in addition to vaccination?
• Which drug is used to treat early-stage African Trypanosomiasis (Sleeping Sickness)?
• Which frostbite degree is characterized by freezing deep to muscle, tendon, and bone?
• What is the gold standard imaging for diagnosing suspected bladder injury after trauma?
• Which medication is commonly used to acutely lower blood pressure in hypertensive emergencies?
• Which option correctly pairs the type of hypotonic hyponatremia with an example?
• Which type of volvulus is most commonly treated with rectal tube insertion?
• What is the most common injured organ in blunt abdominal trauma?
• Placenta previa is typically described with which bleeding pattern and fetal status?
• In the assessment of Circulation during the Primary Survey, which finding best fits the description provided in the material?
• Which test is diagnostic of Achilles tendon rupture?
• Prolonged bleeding after trauma with normal PT and PTT. Dx and tx?
• Epiglottitis most commonly affects children in which age range?
• A patient develops more than a 50% drop in platelets within a week of starting heparin. What is the most likely diagnosis?
• Botulism is commonly associated with ingestion of which exposure?
• Beck's triad for cardiac tamponade includes jugular venous distension, hypotension, and muffled heart sounds. Which finding is not part of the triad?
• Which nerve controls tongue movement?
• A 43-year-old male presents with eye pain after exposure to fertilizer and lime. Which is the most appropriate initial step in managing this patient's symptoms?
• Osteosarcoma has a bimodal age distribution with peaks at which age ranges?
• In suspected anaphylaxis, what is the first priority in management?
• Tx for mild hemophilia?
• Which nerve injury is a known complication of tibial fractures?
• In the FAST exam, the Morison pouch corresponds to which region?
• Hangman's fracture involves fracture of which vertebra?
• Flea bites, fever, painful and suppurative bubos in the groin.
• Which DSM-IV axis addresses psychosocial and environmental factors?
• What is the imaging modality of choice when orbital cellulitis is suspected?
• What is a common, easily correctable cause of prerenal azotemia?
• Which of the following is a hallmark laboratory finding in diabetic ketoacidosis?
• In a child with back pain, which condition is specifically listed as a concern in the provided material?
• Which of the following are sulfonylureas?
• What is the initial test used to assess heart failure?
• Which nerve root is associated with plantar flexion weakness?
• Activated charcoal is not used for which type of toxins?
• In a patient with acute retroviral syndrome, which laboratory test best confirms the diagnosis?
• A joint aspirate shows yellow, cloudy fluid with more than 50,000 WBCs and more than 50% PMNs. The diagnosis is:
• Which set of findings defines malignant hypertension in this material?
• In a patient with ongoing blood loss, what is the recommended disposition?
• Giant multinucleated cells observed on cytology are most characteristic of infection with which virus?
• A patient presents with decreased leg pulses, pale skin, and cool, shiny skin. What is the most likely diagnosis?
• What is the classic arrhythmia associated with COPD?
• Which organism is typically spread by the fecal-oral route?
• In DKA, if serum potassium is less than 3.3 mEq/L, which action should be taken?
• Which organism is most likely responsible for hemorrhagic bullae, vasculitis, and necrotizing fasciitis after a seawater puncture wound?
• Which facial location is most likely for a basal cell carcinoma described as pink pearly papule with surface telangiectasia and slow growth?
• Pruritic macule on the fingers that ulcerates and forms multiple bloody vesicles followed by a painless black eschar. Which disease is this?
• In kidney disease–related bleeding disorders, which treatment is commonly used to shorten bleeding time by releasing stored von Willebrand factor and factor VIII?
• What are the characteristics of 1st degree frostbite (frostnip)?
• Which pathogen is frequently associated with undercooked poultry or contaminated natural water sources?
• In the tamponade scenario, which intervention may be used but would not relieve the symptoms?
• Recent travel with high fever, headache, N/V, myalgia followed by a rash.
• A 56-year-old male presents with edema, hypoalbuminemia, heavy proteinuria, and lipiduria with a normal GFR. What is the most likely diagnosis?
• What is the standard treatment for acute pericarditis?
• Which two cervical vertebrae account for the greatest amount of axial rotation?
• Which symptom is more characteristic of scorpion envenomation than a black widow bite?
• What is the term for a gout attack at the first metatarsophalangeal joint?
• If CT is unavailable, which test can be used as an alternative for diagnosing aortic dissection?
• What is the initial management for a tibial fracture?
• In Class 3 hypovolemic shock, mental status is described as?
• In Herpes Zoster, acyclovir should be given if immunocompromised or within 72 hours of onset.
• In adrenal crisis, which treatment should be administered immediately?
• A 17-year-old male with tachycardia, hypertension, diaphoresis, and mydriasis after a drug exposure; most likely diagnosis?
• Which description best fits pericarditis pain?
• Fever, malaise, vesicular rash at various stages on face and trunk is most consistent with which disease?
• In moderate or major thermal burns, which airway management step is recommended if there are signs of airway burn?
• New onset type 2 diabetes often presents with which condition?
• In HIV patients, which virus is the most common cause of serious opportunistic viral disease?
• In the Duke criteria for infective endocarditis, which finding satisfies a major criterion?
• Why must a posterior hip dislocation be reduced promptly (within about 6 hours)?
• West Nile virus typically presents with fever and headache after a mosquito bite. Which is the recommended initial management?
• Which therapy is the cornerstone of treatment for myxedema coma?
• What is the most likely diagnosis in a patient with abrupt severe headache, vertigo, nystagmus, sensory loss, and facial weakness on one side?
• Treatment for cysticercosis tapeworm.
• Which clinical sign is most characteristic of diabetic ketoacidosis?
• What is the initial treatment for suspected carbon monoxide poisoning?
• Which population is at highest risk for Wernicke encephalopathy due to thiamine deficiency?
• Following trauma to the spine, there is complete paralysis in the legs with loss of temperature and pain sensation, but preserved proprioception and vibratory sense. Dx?
• Which diagnosis best fits a patient with rest angina, transient ST elevations relieved by nitroglycerin, and normal coronary arteries on catheterization?
• Eating food from a street vendor with dry cough, fever, weakness, and malnutrition. Which helminth infection is likely?
• Chest pain reproducible with palpation is most consistent with which diagnosis?
• In acute chest syndrome, which combination of therapies is commonly used in initial management?
• During a physical exam, palpation between the ischial tuberosity and the greater trochanter in a patient with leg radiation identifies which nerve?
• Lisfranc fractures involve which joints?
• In a child with hemophilia, which joint is most commonly affected by hemarthrosis?
• What is the definitive treatment for cardiogenic shock?
• What is the most common cause of hypomagnesemia?
• An elderly patient with cancer presents with back pain, confusion, and constipation. What electrolyte abnormality is most likely?
• Which sputum findings are associated with asthma?
• Which specialty follow-up is appropriate after a suspected ACL injury?
• Which option is NOT a named incomplete spinal cord syndrome?
• A wedge fracture is caused by which mechanism?
• A 3-year-old with acute onset of cough and wheeze. Focal wheezing in the right lower lobe. Which is the most effective treatment for suspected foreign body aspiration?
• In an HIV-positive patient with multiple ring-enhancing brain lesions and edema, which treatment is the choice?
• Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to thrombolytic therapy?
• Small bowel and colon injuries are most commonly caused by what type of trauma?
• In blowout fracture radiographs, which sign reflects bone fragments in the sinus?
• Which is part of the initial management for suspected neurogenic shock?
• Which condition is a nonanion gap metabolic acidosis cause?
• In bronchiolitis, auscultation commonly reveals what findings?
• Baseline fetal heart rate range is between which of the following?
• What is the initial management of heat stroke?
• If a patient has bradycardia or severe COPD, which should be used instead of a beta-blocker?
• What is assessed in the Glasgow Coma Scale?
• Which of the following is a symptom included in the SLUDGE mnemonic for organophosphate poisoning?
• A patient with sudden tearing chest pain radiating to the back and unequal arm blood pressures is most concerning for which condition?
• A patient with hip surgery presents with tachycardia, tachypnea, and hypoxia. What is the best test to diagnose suspected pulmonary embolism?
• Which of the following is a relative contraindication to thrombolytic therapy?
• Which is part of managing respiratory acidosis?
• Back pain with a positive crossed straight leg test and diminished reflexes is most consistent with which diagnosis?
• What is the maximum possible Glasgow Coma Scale score?
• Which carpal bone is the most commonly fractured?
• Which fracture is a distal radius fracture with dislocation of the distal radioulnar joint at the wrist?
• In acute pericarditis, which of the following is a serious complication that requires careful monitoring to prevent progression to tamponade?
• A patient with salmonellosis is treated with which antibiotic?
• Which combination best describes the typical presentation of acute pericarditis?
• A circular plaque with scales and a raised border on the trunk describes which condition?
• What percentage of volume loss causes hypovolemic shock?
• An athlete presents with swelling of the external ear after blunt traumatic impact. Which is the most appropriate management?
• After a recent sexual assault, which measure is most critical to improve prognosis?
• Which feature best differentiates diabetic ketoacidosis from hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state?
• Which of the following is a distributive (vasodilatory) shock type?
• What is the most common cause of anemia?
• Which clinical finding is characteristic of Kawasaki disease?
• In hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, which medication class is commonly used to relieve symptoms?
• What is the most likely reason for a patient to have cardiogenic shock?
• In trauma, the FAST exam has replaced which technique for evaluating hemodynamically unstable patients?
• Which treatment is recommended for respiratory alkalosis due to anxiety?
• Sickle cell patient with chest pain, dyspnea, cough, and fever. Most likely diagnosis?
• Pulsus paradoxus is most commonly associated with which condition?
• For Streptococcal Toxic Shock Syndrome, which IV antibiotic combination is recommended?
• Seatbelt injury is most commonly associated with which fracture?
• Which disease is characterized by a strawberry tongue and a sandpaper-like rash following streptococcal pharyngitis?
• Which action is an appropriate initial step in treating hypothermia?
• Reiter syndrome associated with chlamydial infection includes urethritis, conjunctivitis, and which manifestation?
• In Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever, where does the rash commonly begin?
• In the described acute pericarditis case, which cardiac biomarker is more likely to be elevated?
• For an adult with black stools (melena) and no systemic symptoms, what is the most appropriate initial diagnostic test?
• Which statement describes Type 1 von Willebrand disease?
• In trauma during pregnancy, what position is recommended to avoid supine hypotension syndrome?
• What are the characteristics of 4th degree frostbite?
• Which of the following is an appropriate initial treatment for sunburn?
• The rotator cuff consists of which four muscles?
• Recent travel with fever, headache, conjunctival injection, facial flushing followed by jaundice, black emesis, and albuminuria.
• Which combination of steps is recommended for mild thermal burns?
• A popping sensation in the knee followed by significant swelling after sprinting and stopping quickly is most consistent with which diagnosis?
• What is the most common vector of disease transmission?
• In otitis externa, the most common pathogen is Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Which topical regimen is traditionally used?
• Which imaging studies and signs are typically seen in congestive heart failure?
• What is described as the treatment for splenic rupture in the material?
• A 66-year-old woman with nephrotic syndrome on prednisone presents with cough and dyspnea. Which diagnosis is highly suspected due to the hypercoagulable state associated with nephrotic syndrome?
• Which animal is categorized as low risk for rabies in the source material?
• In the treatment of achalasia, which medication can act as a muscle relaxant?
• What finding is commonly observed in malaria infection?
• Which physical examination finding is commonly associated with dilated cardiomyopathy?
• What is a positive Kehr sign indicative of?
• Which GU injuries can be treated on an outpatient basis?
• Which heart sounds are typically heard with myocardial infarction?
• What is the most common ECG abnormality in patients with a pulmonary embolism?
• For an abscess with suspected MRSA, which antibiotic is an option for coverage?
• ____ arrhythmia most frequently results from lower energy AC exposures whereas ____ is more common after exposure to higher energy DC.
• What is the most commonly indicated test for signs of foodborne illness (i.e., diarrhea)?
• Following severe retching and a strenuous lifting session, which diagnosis best explains hematemesis in this patient?
• Which fracture is an oblique fracture through the base of the radial styloid?
• Which incomplete spinal injury has the worst prognosis?
• A classic skin finding in erythema multiforme is what?
• A joint aspirate shows yellow and cloudy fluid with 200–50,000 WBCs and more than 50% PMNs. This fluid is classified as:
• Which laboratory finding is most characteristic of a cholestatic liver disease such as biliary cirrhosis?
• What describes the role of ursodeoxycholic acid in biliary cirrhosis?
• In frostbite management, which blister type is considered less favorable?
• In hyperglycemic hyperosmolar state, what is the urine output goal during fluid therapy?
• Which treatment option is appropriate for heat rash?
• Acute bacterial prostatitis is treated with which antibiotic class?
• What is the 3:1 rule for fluid resuscitation in hemorrhage?
• Which splint is commonly used to immobilize a scaphoid fracture?
• Which diagnostic test is used for suspected tinea capitis?
• Which COPD phenotype is associated with the term 'blue bloater'?
• Which splint is commonly used to immobilize a Rolondos fracture?
• A patient presents with red lesions and white plaques on the vulva with months of intense pruritus. The clinician is concerned for which condition?
• What is the most common radiologic finding in a tension pneumothorax?
• Hangman's fracture refers to a fracture of which cervical vertebra?
• A patient presents with hypotension, warm dry skin, and bradycardia after a spinal injury. What is the most likely diagnosis?
• An 88-year-old woman falls and presents with a shortened, abducted, externally rotated leg and knee pain. Which injury is most likely?
• Which of the following is NOT a listed cause of hypomagnesemia?
• Which IV fluid is used for dehydration according to the protocol described?
• Which medication, among the following, is used in heart failure to increase cardiac contractility?
• What blood pressure threshold excludes the use of tPA in ischemic stroke?
• How can some people survive a lightning strike?
• In a ruptured ovarian cyst with suspected internal bleeding, which finding would indicate the need for emergent gynecologic surgery?
• In HIV-positive patients with AIDS presenting with ring-enhancing brain lesions, which organism is classically implicated and treated with sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine?
• Chvostek sign is elicited by tapping which nerve?
• Cystic acne with ulcerating lesions, fever, myalgia, and hepatosplenomegaly.
• Which fluid should never be used to replace volume?
• A cellulitis of the floor of the mouth and neck originating in the submandibular space, commonly from a dental infection, describes which condition?
• A FOOSH injury with snuff box tenderness indicates which fracture?
• Which surgical option is used for treating arterial insufficiency?
• Which item is NOT included in the SAD PERSONS suicide risk assessment?
• Which of the following is a common complication of late hypothermia?
• Which spinal cord syndrome features ipsilateral motor paralysis and contralateral loss of pain and temperature?
• In Toxic Shock Syndrome, what is the most important initial management step?
• In hyponatremia management, which statement is true?
• Which patients typically experience atypical chest pain with myocardial infarction?
• In a young patient presenting with stroke symptoms and possible recent neck trauma, which condition should be considered?
• A diffuse macular erythroderma rash is classically associated with which syndrome?
• Which type of shoulder dislocation is most common?
• Which Le Fort fracture is a pyramidal fracture through the central maxilla and hard palate?
• Hypocalcemia treatment includes which combination?
• Which finding is most characteristic of Prinzmetal (variant) angina?
• A 3-year-old boy presents with acute onset of cough and wheezing. Focal wheezing is heard in the right lower lung. Which test should be ordered to confirm the suspected diagnosis?
• Which shoulder dislocation reduction technique is commonly associated with gentle traction and abduction?
• Boxer's fracture describes a fracture of which bone?
• Eating undercooked pork, seizures, headaches, mental status change, hydrocephalus.
• Which statement correctly classifies hypothermia by core temperature?
• An 18-month-old infant with congenital heart disease is diagnosed with acute bronchiolitis secondary to respiratory syncytial virus. Which therapy should be initiated?
• Nongonococcal urethritis commonly presents with what symptom?
• The definitive imaging test to order when a patient has back pain with neurological deficits is:
• In areas with known chloroquine resistance, which malaria regimen is preferred?
• Which drug is used to treat Amebiasis (Entamoeba histolytica)?
• What is the most common barotrauma among scuba divers during descent?
• What is the first-line single-dose antibiotic for chancroid?
• Red dots on the waist, shoulders, and axillae progress to papules and wheals with intense itching and small white spheres attached to hair. This describes which infestation?
• Acute _____ failure is defined by an increased creatinine x3 and a decrease in GFR by >75% or urine output <0.3 mL/kg/h for 24 hours or anuria for 12 hours.
• What causes pseudohyperkalemia?
• How is anterior epistaxis managed according to the material?
• In anterior shoulder dislocation, which associated injuries are commonly present?
• Pain and tenderness over the patella with a joint effusion is most consistent with which diagnosis?
• In the functional classification of heart failure, which class is described as having no cardiac symptoms with ordinary activity?
• Liquefaction necrosis after a chemical spill on the arm indicates which type of burn?
• For synchronized cardioversion, what energy levels are used for PSVT and for atrial fibrillation or ventricular tachycardia?